In other explanations I've tried to find on websites, they put only "m" for defining micrometer, but this video got it right by putting that "μ" symbol. Makes it easier to grasp (cause at first glance it looks like mm for millimeter) so thanks.
question... suppose two identically wound coils. suppose BOTH coils driven in phase with a 10vac signal. suppose you could measure the magnetic force in middle of iron coil. is there a notion that if one coil was inverted before being placed on core, that there would be 0 magnetic force? is there any configuration (eg: winding one coil in opposite direction, or other circumstance...) that could 'cancel out the emf and magnetic lines of force?
might help if you didn't have the same letter for volume and velocity or make a better difference between small v and capital v apart from that is a nice derivation
Hi, I wanted to thank you for the video. Great explanation. I have only one doubt. I tried to solve the problem without looking at the way you solve it and I imagined that the police (sourcw) is on the left chasing the bike (observer) that is on the right. In this case I would end up with both sign positive on the numerator and denominator of the formula. Correct me if I am wrong please. To not come across this type of mistake, the professor must tell me the where the observer and the source are?
I find your explanations about magnetic fields super interesting! I have one more question though: Why are magnetic field lines depicted with arrows? After all, magnetic fields are closed systems without a beginning or an end. Do the arrows only serve to indicate the north and south poles? Faraday developed the concept of field lines, but I don't quite understand the meaning of the arrows. Maybe you could explain this in more detail in one of your next videos? I would be very happy!
