This is an undergraduate level Fluid Mechanics course, which was given to the 2nd year Engineering Students at Cambridge University Engineering Department from 2005 to 2013 by Dr. Matthew Juniper.
He says corrects himself four times: at 11:58, 13:23, 13:55, and 14:12 (confused between back of the wing and tip) and says "I'm sorry" thrice after mixing up stagnation and separation. He's drunk!
4:42 so the convective part is independant of time, is that correct ? Is it as if it was "moving" accross space at a certain point in time kept constant ?
This is probably the most comprehensive explanation of how adjoint optimizations work. Everyone else wants to jump right into the math without giving a good intuitive understanding about what is going on first.
Thanks for the explanation. But can you tell what does it mean physically when the flow is irrotational that we are able to apply Bernoullis eqn accross stream lines. Also why is stagnation pressure uniform? Does it mean the static pressure component will adjust itself with velocity variations along the flow?
I can tell from your elegant explanations that you have a deep understanding of fluid dynamics. Excuse my stupid question, but I am trying to develop an intuition for the subject. I don't understand how V1 an equal V3 if there is a static pressure loss? Thank you.
why do we use the reynold's number? it seems like an arbitrary simplification that should be the result of the calculations rather than be used by the calculations
Reynold's number is used to know if we can compare 2 simulations/validation tests. The lower the number the more dependent on viscosity the flow is. Since similar numbers have similar characteristics you can use much smaller scale models to check if the simulations are accurate (as long as the numbers are similar)
Thanks for the helpful video. Just to clear up for the case where we apply Bernoulli along a streamline where you dot the equation with v. Would omega cross v be zero without dotting it with v? If so, then it seems the omega cross v term is always zero- which would seem to trivialize the condition of requiring zero vorticity. Thanks for the content!
@@learnfluidmechanics4166 Thank you very much. I really appreciate this video. It is the only video to clear everything up regarding Bernoulli’s equation and use cases for me.
I'm confused about why it's more efficient to solve for how the lyft/drag changes with respect to each flow variable. Are you solving a PDE for each flow variable? Or does it have something to do with how you evaluate the lift/drag from the flow variables? Thank you! Lovely explanation of concept.
Thanks for the very good explanation! Would it be possible to compute the derivatives directly for the lift/drag-ratio rather then doing it independently for the two quantities? I assume that would reduce the required computational effort further (by the cost of one foward function evaluation)?
