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Deriving e from the limit (1+1/x)^x as x approaches infinity 

Tambuwal Maths Class
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22 авг 2024

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Комментарии : 36   
@Ursus-tl5lt
@Ursus-tl5lt 8 месяцев назад
You cant use ln in your proof since ln is based on e and its derivative is based on the results of this theorem. The actual proof is complicated and it just proves the limit exists and is between 2 and 3, than it is calculated with taylor approximation
@ntlake
@ntlake 7 месяцев назад
Not necessarily. You can define ln(x) without using e at all.
@blackapple62
@blackapple62 7 месяцев назад
@@ntlake How exactly can you do this? Using the natural logarithm quite literally means you're using a logarithm of base e.
@ntlake
@ntlake 7 месяцев назад
@@blackapple62 well, in more advanced mathematics the natural logarithm log(x) is often defined as the integral from 1 to x of dt/t. Then you prove that it's also the inverse function of exp(x).
@lemon.linguist
@lemon.linguist 5 дней назад
@@ntlakeexactly you can do it by figuring it out as an area function or antiderivative of 1/x
@Osirion16
@Osirion16 Год назад
Very cool thank you
@tambuwalmathsclass
@tambuwalmathsclass Год назад
Thank you
@prakashlakhapate1598
@prakashlakhapate1598 3 месяца назад
You can not use natural logarithm as E is to be proved. Dhanyavad
@El0melette
@El0melette Месяц назад
you can if you define lnx as the integral from 1 to x of 1/t dt, and define e as the point where ln(x)=1.
@thedeathofbirth0763
@thedeathofbirth0763 6 месяцев назад
Awesome explanation!
@sweetworldismine
@sweetworldismine Год назад
I just discovered your channel. You are doing a wonderful job. Do you have a Whatsapp or telegram group for Jss1 student's mathematics
@tambuwalmathsclass
@tambuwalmathsclass Год назад
I appreciate it 🙏 We only have a group on Facebook
@РусскийПатриотЯша
Idk, there was a n easier method imo, where by using log properties and mclaurin you not only simplify the process but also save up time.
@jamesharmon4994
@jamesharmon4994 4 месяца назад
What I'd be interested in knowing is what happens if 1/x is replaced by 2/x, or 3/x. Since the given formula converges and one factor is being multiplied by a constant, the new formula should also converge.
@upalsengupta5878
@upalsengupta5878 4 месяца назад
Excellent
@isabellamichalek7705
@isabellamichalek7705 Месяц назад
hello, thank you for your video, but I am confused about how you canceled the -1/x^2.
@prakashlakhapate1598
@prakashlakhapate1598 3 месяца назад
Binomial expansion formula need to be used because e is to be proved.
@adw1z
@adw1z 8 месяцев назад
ln == log base e , and e is defined by this limit, so nothing was achieved other than showing consistency - there is no need to prove anything, as the definition of e itself is the limit
@ntlake
@ntlake 7 месяцев назад
Nope. e isn't defined by this limit, it's defined by the limit as n approaches infinity of (1+1/n)ⁿ
@adw1z
@adw1z 7 месяцев назад
@@ntlake that’s the exact same thing?? Using n,x,α,γ,.. whatever letter u want doesn’t matter as it is a dummy variable And if u mean n as in natural number or discrete limit, it doesn’t matter as the limiting function is continuous anyways, the discrete and continuous limits must agree
@ntlake
@ntlake 7 месяцев назад
​@@adw1z yeah, but no. The definition of e is the limit of a sequence, then it being equal to the limit of the function is something you have to prove. Anyway, I can define e without using this limit if you want.
@adw1z
@adw1z 7 месяцев назад
@@ntlake the proof follows trivially directly from the definition of continuity of a function, but I’d be interested in seeing your other definition
@ntlake
@ntlake 6 месяцев назад
@@adw1z sorry, missed the notification. the fact that the proof is trivial doesn't change the fact that it isn't its definition. Anyway the other definition is e = 1/0! + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + ...
@valentin8982
@valentin8982 9 месяцев назад
awesome
@willyprophete5750
@willyprophete5750 4 месяца назад
logy = 1 and then y = 10 or lim xlog(1+1/x) = 10 when x is very bigger
@DamienBlt
@DamienBlt Год назад
I understood all, but at the beguining, why there is (let y) what meaning ?, and what ln y = lim.....
@lubanlatif3713
@lubanlatif3713 Год назад
Basically, he assigned "y" to the equation as a variable. Therefore, we assumed that "y" equaled the whole equation. In the case of (ln y = lim), we multiplied both sides with "ln" (excluding the limit). Later, he explained it in more detail.
@DamienBlt
@DamienBlt Год назад
@@lubanlatif3713 ok thanks !
@willyprophete5750
@willyprophete5750 4 месяца назад
What will happen if base is 10? ( Then we have log 10 = 1 )
@AbhilashKhuntia
@AbhilashKhuntia Год назад
I am getting stuck like why are we cancelling -1/x^2 won't those two be equal to 0 and we cannot cancel 0 terms like that Please correct me if I am wrong
@nychan2939
@nychan2939 10 месяцев назад
You can cancel equal non-zero factors from the numerator and denominator. They may be small but mustn't be zero. You can't do the cancellation if both are zero. This is the main idea in limit evaluation.
@wyboo2019
@wyboo2019 Год назад
but isn't this limit the definition of e? or are you using the infinite polynomial definition of e^x
@tambuwalmathsclass
@tambuwalmathsclass Год назад
It's indeed the definition
@Grim_Reaper_from_Hell
@Grim_Reaper_from_Hell 8 месяцев назад
There is only one definition lim(1+1/x)^x. It is a continuous compounding
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