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FRM: VaR model backtest 

Bionic Turtle
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A backtest compares actual OBSERVED exceptions (aka, failures or exceedences) to EXPECTED; e.g., we observed losses in excess of VaR four (4) days last year but we only expected 2-3. For more financial risk videos, visit our website! www.bionicturtl...

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15 окт 2024

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Комментарии : 10   
@midorinoboshi3195
@midorinoboshi3195 7 лет назад
Could you possibly show step by step through the process?
@sgpleasure
@sgpleasure 3 года назад
In the above video, the probability of type 1 error is above 10% on the condition is a correct model. But why choose the cut off of 5 or more exceptions and not choose 6 or more instead?
@ancymoniadespereira4706
@ancymoniadespereira4706 4 года назад
Hi, could you explain step by step how did you get this output?
@bionicturtle
@bionicturtle 14 лет назад
@DeadLyQatar It's just a setting on the Ribbon. In Excel 2010, you uncheck View > Gridlines
@idally89
@idally89 13 лет назад
hello, if i have 1 day VaR for 500 daily observation of a portfolio and i want to apply backtesting. How can this be possible. How can i get the exceeding values from 500 returns while i have just 1 portfolio VaR ? hope u can help me as soo as possible downloading an .xls example would be perfect. thanks
@alexanderpanko3580
@alexanderpanko3580 4 года назад
I am not sure if I got you correctly. Case 1: your VaR is estimated based on 500 observations and you still want to backtest only 1 year of data (250 observations), then it is exactly as described in the video. Case 2: you have 1 day VaR (already calculated and we do not care how many observations were used to calculate it). You want to backtest your model with 500 (around 1.5 years) observations. In this case (assume 99% VaR is used) we expect (if the model is good) 500*0.01=5 observations with loss more than VaR. However, since this result is based on random sample (500 days profit&loss are random sample) 5 is just a mean of Binomial distribution. It sounds natural that values around 5 are also plausible, but what about,for example, 10? We also know how to calculate the standard deviation of Binomial distribution and, say, 95% confidence interval. From this theoretical approach, we can find that with 95% of probability the number of days when a bank experiences a loss more than VaR does not exceed 9. Then you can simply calculate how many days the losses were above the VaR (the VaR value comes from your model and actually examined) and if the number of days is more than 9 than the model is not correct with 95% of probability. It is important to understand that the error can occur only in your VaR calculation, since parameters of Binomial distribution are known and the fact that required distribution is Binomial is also obvious.
@sidbp7957
@sidbp7957 6 лет назад
hmm - not sure about this method.. my understanding is you actually calculate your 1 day VARs for all the prior days (say last 250 days) and then compare those VAR numbers with the actual P&L that was recorded for those same days. What you have described is calculating a 1 day VAR and using this one figure to see if the P&L over the last 250 days ever breached it...
@monour7907
@monour7907 4 года назад
ARE YOU sure sir ??
@bionicturtle
@bionicturtle 12 лет назад
@TheStormPulse Bernoulli, i don't think it's a pasta :)
@Questington
@Questington 12 лет назад
binooley?
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