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Is π Random? Exploring the Elusive Normal Numbers 

Dr Sean
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Is pi random? Pi is fixed and predetermined, but its digits look just like random digits! We'll define normal numbers by exploring why pi's digits look random. Then we'll see what it would mean if pi is a normal number.
00:00 Introduction
00:18 Why do pi's digits look random?
01:02 Normal numbers
03:17 Is pi normal?
04:47 What if pi is normal?

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1 авг 2024

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Комментарии : 37   
@3141minecraft
@3141minecraft 3 месяца назад
0:17 if pi is normal, that means both of these digit sequenses are digits from pi
@unvergebeneid
@unvergebeneid 3 месяца назад
2:27 thank you for confirming that being rational and being normal is mutually exclusive.
@wernergamper6200
@wernergamper6200 3 месяца назад
I don‘t know.
@edwardnedharvey8019
@edwardnedharvey8019 3 месяца назад
You said if we randomly pick a number between 0 and 1, there is a 100% chance that we will not pick any rational number. Which is amazing, considering there are infinitely many. I guess that's a consequence of uncountably vs countably infinite. I guess if there's an infinite sequence of blue objects, and somebody inserts a red object at a random position within the sequence, there is also a 0% chance that anybody looking through the sequence for finite time could ever find the red one. Pretty amazing. Thanks!
@DrSeanGroathouse
@DrSeanGroathouse 3 месяца назад
You're right, if we pick a uniform random variable between 0 and 1 it has probability 0 of being rational! And you're right it's also true for any countably infinite set. And although we can pick a real number uniformly at random, there is no way to pick a rational number uniformly at random. Or even an integer uniformly at random. If they all have the same probability c, then we add up c+c+c+... and get either 0 if c=0 or infinity if c>0, but the probabilities should add up to 1. So if we want to pick an integer position at random, we have to either gives the integers different probabilities of being picked or restrict ourselves to a finite set of possibilities.
@YouTube_username_not_found
@YouTube_username_not_found 3 месяца назад
The normal numbers set reminds me of the Cantor set, which is uncountably infinite yet has measure 0. If we examine its other properties we notice It has a hausdorff dimension less than 1 .. which brings us to the next question: What is the Hausdorff dimension of the normal numbers set?
@empathogen75
@empathogen75 3 месяца назад
The answer is apparently 1 projecteuclid.org/journals/pacific-journal-of-mathematics/volume-95/issue-1/The-Hausdorff-dimension-of-a-set-of-normal-numbers/pjm/1102735539.pdf
@espartano1313
@espartano1313 3 месяца назад
Ty for ur work Dr Sean
@DrSeanGroathouse
@DrSeanGroathouse 3 месяца назад
I'm glad you liked it!
@mienzillaz
@mienzillaz 3 месяца назад
i had some pie.. it was normal..
@SuryaBudimansyah
@SuryaBudimansyah 3 месяца назад
Since you talked about pi, suggestion: please talk about other popular irrational/transcendental constants like e, Sqrt(2), golden ratio, etc
@DrSeanGroathouse
@DrSeanGroathouse 3 месяца назад
Thanks for the suggestions, I added them to my list!
@atrus3823
@atrus3823 3 месяца назад
Awesome video! Is there a name for numbers that are normal in all bases?
@DrSeanGroathouse
@DrSeanGroathouse 3 месяца назад
Glad you liked it! Those are called 'absolutely normal' or sometimes just 'normal'
@dlevi67
@dlevi67 3 месяца назад
I find it surprising that the Copeland-Erdős constant is normal - except for 2 and 5, all primes end in 1, 3, 7 or 9, so the first few hundred digits look far from normal. Yet it is.
@RSchrE
@RSchrE 3 месяца назад
Maybe that, since the sequences of digits grow larger and larger, the single last digit doesn’t matter in the end.
@dlevi67
@dlevi67 3 месяца назад
@@RSchrE That's clearly the case - its's just that the beginning of the sequence doesn't look 'promising'. For example, taking a list of the primes below 100,000 (~9,500 primes), the count of single digits is still strongly skewed: 0s = 2725 1s = 6353 2s = 3906 3s = 6229 4s = 3772 5s = 3816 6s = 3741 7s = 6172 8s = 3690 9s = 6130 Zero is under-represented because I didn't pad the numbers below 10,000 with leading zeros, but you can see that while the frequency of 2, 4, 5, 6, 8 is more or less equal (which supports the hypothesis of normality), 1, 3, 7 and 9 are over-represented. Obviously, this is a very small sample, but it is still larger (~46,000 digits) than what a human brain can "eyeball" to detect patterns.
@Lucky10279
@Lucky10279 3 месяца назад
4:08 WHICH measure are we talking about?
@DrSeanGroathouse
@DrSeanGroathouse 3 месяца назад
Lebesgue measure :)
@Lucky10279
@Lucky10279 3 месяца назад
@@DrSeanGroathouse But doesn't the Lebesgue measure only output zero for sets that are finite or countably infinite? You said that there are an uncountable number of non-normal real numbers as well as an uncountable number normal reals. Was that a mistake and you meant to say a countable number of non-normal reals?
@YouTube_username_not_found
@YouTube_username_not_found 3 месяца назад
@@Lucky10279 Not necessarily, as a counterexample, there is the Cantor set. Look it up!
@YouTube_username_not_found
@YouTube_username_not_found 3 месяца назад
Not necessarily, as a counterexample, there is the Cantor set. Look it up!
@nickronca1562
@nickronca1562 3 месяца назад
My beliefs: Pi is normal and we will never be able to prove it.
@100_IQ_EQ
@100_IQ_EQ 2 месяца назад
The probability that pi is not normal is 0 as you say as per measure theory. Doesn't this serve as proof? If it doesn't, when are probability-based proofs correct and when are they not?
@compositeboson123
@compositeboson123 3 месяца назад
edit: pi is not normal, like not at all buttt its also normal because that would be cool
@Erotemic
@Erotemic 3 месяца назад
The fact that the probability of picking a rational number from the reals between 0 and 1 is 0 is so unintuitive to me. I understand how it follows from measure theory, but it also feels like a contradiction regarding our theory of uncountably infinite sets is just staring us in the face. You would think that if x is in set S, and you select s from S uniformly at random, then P(x = s) > 0, but that's not true when S is uncountably infinite (I think it's also not true if S is just countably infinite? In other words, is the probability of randomly selecting 0 from the set of natural numbers also zero? It seems like that is the case.).
@DrSeanGroathouse
@DrSeanGroathouse 3 месяца назад
It's definitely unintuitive, I think! And with countably infinite sets it's maybe even less intuitive. We can't pick an integer uniformly at random, since like you said the probabilities can't be positive, so they must be 0. But then if we add up countably many 0's, that's just 0. So there's no way to get the probabilities to sum to 1. So we also can't pick a rational number between 0 and 1 uniformly at random. But we can with real numbers!
@Erotemic
@Erotemic 3 месяца назад
@@DrSeanGroathouse this is a very helpful reply. After some head scratching it makes more sense now. The integers are sort of doing "the right thing": you have something infinite, so selecting uniformly at random doesn't make sense and is not defined. But you're telling me you can do it with the reals? Was there any abuse of terminology when you said you can pick uniformly from random from the reals? How much of this relies on the axiom of choice?
@Erotemic
@Erotemic 3 месяца назад
@@DrSeanGroathouse I'm thinking about again and recalling properties of continuous probability distributions. Isn't the probability of any particular number zero? Isn't the density around numbers that's the non-zero thing? In this case is it the density around the rationals is zero?
@compositeboson123
@compositeboson123 3 месяца назад
why the discriminant *of the quadratic polynomial* = b^2-4ac edit: corrected the sentence
@dlevi67
@dlevi67 3 месяца назад
Are you asking how to derive the quadratic formula?
@compositeboson123
@compositeboson123 3 месяца назад
​@@dlevi67 no the discriminant edit: *I think
@dlevi67
@dlevi67 3 месяца назад
@@compositeboson123 Which is kind of the same thing, I think. Start from your usual ax² + bx + c = 0 multiply by 4a both sides 4a²x² + 4abx + 4ac = 0 add b² to both sides ("complete the square") 4a²x² + 4abx + 4ac + b² = b² subtract 4ac from both sides 4a²x² + 4abx + b² = b² - 4ac note that the LH is now (2ax + b)², so take the square root 2ax + b = ±√(b² - 4ac) now, when you solve the for "first degree" x, the two solutions are 2√(b² - 4ac) apart.
@compositeboson123
@compositeboson123 3 месяца назад
@@dlevi67 thanks
@S-payanage
@S-payanage 3 месяца назад
🦦