Sir i have two doubts. 38:09 = why we use cos for x axis and sin for y axis? 39:13 = I solve that Px^2 +Py^2. But I didn't get C2..Is that any trick behind this step?
1. Because angles are always measured from X-axis. 2. After the expanding and adding the equations.Take l1 and l2 common, and what remains is the expansion of cos(theta 12 - theta 1)... Thats how we get C2.
Hello sir, I have a little problem with the 2DoF solution. Since theta2 everything is straightforward forward but now for theta 1 I don't know how to continue... can u gently help me out? How do I achieve the solution? I don't get it... theta1 = ??? Thank you
