<a href="#" class="seekto" data-time="895">14:55</a> How is it that people pull bits out of the Bible about homosexuality and it is (out of context) with regards to it's time period vs the modern day's definition such as 1 example Mark uses where the ancients are referring to (Phedophelia) in Leviticus but there are quotes in the same Chapter which are quite clear that they are referring to the condemnation of homosexuality with quotes like... " If a man has lay with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They are to be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads" ??? I wish he pulled a few quotes out and explained some examples of how it is out of context etc... :(
