The way it !SHOULD! work 'classically' is electrons and positrons, the only true fundamental particles are an in-out vibrating globular field warp in the subspace field of close-packed +ve balls bound by -ve gas. The electron has 1 quantum (1 cell's worth) of extra -ve charge left over from a cell being kicked free (that became a positron).. The -ve gas flows from the centre to the outer edge and back as a wave, with cells being pulled in and out at C.. -- There are 6 (or more?) DC Mass Spin Loops of -ve gas and cells in a torus too.. A magnetic field is the same but with cells as vibrating AC cell blips in the direction of -ve gas flow... When a particle accelerated hard its energy field can momentarily massively weakens, and the 1 quantum of extra -ve gas at the electron core travels as a tiny ball of extra -ve gas. It's field reforms at C but the electron is going so fast it doesn't have time to establish a large coherent field until it leaves the field of the barrier electron.
So, it doesn't matter how much resistance(magnitude wise) the potential barrier offers, unless it has a wider barrier, the electrons can penetrate through it?
Great video Parth! Lucid and quite easy to understand More importantly, could you make a video differentiating between Newtonian, Lagrangian and Hamiltonian mechanics. These are so interesting but I don't find any good explanations
Great explanation for the energy-position plot, when you see it the first time, it can be quite confusing :p especially when one draws the wavefuncion in the same plot (like at 11:05), but you made sure to explain everything very detailed 👍
bro, outstanding science vid! i faster got the clue with your explanation than with german toturials and im german and my englsih is quite poor, keep it up! "Weitermachen, alter!" greez from germany
Hey Parth, I just recently discovered your videos and I just want to say that they are absolutely amazing and have helped me so much as a first year physics student. Your Quantum videos are so interesting and well explained.
How to study smart in physics? I find it hard to find good material on it. Most of the study advice videos are not for understanding abstract ideas like the case is with physics, but with just memorisation or just like concepts. It would be really nice if you could make a video about that, although I know thats probably kinda hard to do. But ye that would be great!
I loved that you didn't jump into potential graphs straight away, but instead took Time to make everything crystal clear. Thank you for the shout out ❤️
This is AMAZING!!!! They talk about this a lot in nanotechnology classes and I've always been so confused since they kind of brush over it😅 Thank you so very much!!!! It all makes so much more sense now!
If we are looking in the past when we see the light from distant stars, and it shows that galaxies are drifting away, then isn't it in the past that galaxies are moving away from us and the expansion of universe taking place?
Electrons are coiled Aether fields, not particles. A straight wire, into a coiled wire. Parallel magnetic fields, into Unparallel magnetic fields. Compressing into each other, charge. J.J. Thompson, the discoverer of the Electron, said the electron wasn't a particle. Until he was offered a Nobel Prize. Tunneling dropping its magnetic transverse wave, leaving only its Dielectric energy. That doesn't create Tesla nodes, as transverse waves, no EM waves perturbations. Dielectric energy is longitudinal perturbations along the Inertial plane/Counterspace.
The way it works is electrons and positrons, the only true fundamental particles are an in-out vibrating globular field warp in the subspace field of close-packed +ve balls bound by -ve gas. The electron has 1 quantum (1 cell's worth) of extra -ve charge left over from a cell being kicked free (that became a positron).. The -ve gas flows from the centre to the outer edge and back as a wave, with cells being pulled in and out at C.. -- There are 6 (or more?) DC Mass Spin Loops of -ve gas and cells in a torus too.. A magnetic field is the same but with cells as vibrating AC cell blips in the direction of -ve gas flow... When a particle accelerated hard its energy field can momentarily massively weakens, and the 1 quantum of extra -ve gas at the electron core travels as a tiny ball of extra -ve gas. It's field reforms at C but the electron is going so fast it doesn't have time to establish a large coherent field until it leaves the field of the barrier electron.
That's how the sun is emitting light, as far as I have been taught: pressure, temperature, energy are not enough alone to cause fusion, which implies 2 things : - that's why thankfully fusion inside the sun is very ineffective, thus giving it billions of years life - wave function is not only a mathematical representation, but somehow a real matter thing. Well can we still call it matter at this stage ? That leads my mind to QFT. Am I the only one who came to this thought ? Anyone feel free to correct my reasoning and line of thoughts, I am no physicist, just passionately curious about a world richer than what it looks like.
If I were to tell you that the speed of light has been decreasing at 1% per ever 10^6 years since the big bag, could I be proved wrong? And if E=mc^2 is valid and as C approaches zero does that mean E does too? Or does m become proportionally large? Just wondering?
dig into this a little deeper for us - see where it goes? Say the SoL is decreasing then what else is changing? are other universal constants or ratios changing? are they evolving in the same way? in which case would we be able to even tell the difference between the SoL then and now ?
Ok probability can forecast but Anyone able to explain Why an electron can overcome another electron with more energy? Is the first becoming (thanks to what?) more energetic ? Or the second loosing temporarily its energy?
This phenomena is one of a few quantum principles that will inhibit a black hole from being created. The Schwarzschild singularity does not appear for the reason that matter cannot be concentrated arbitrarily because of quantum tunneling.
People should not assume the point particle model of an electron is anything other than the statistical center of an electron or subatomic construct. If you dispose of this bad assumption, you can model this classically without appealing to the magical thinking of QM.
So this can provide free energy, no? Can’t you take advantage of the energy of the second electron being outside the first electron, and extract energy every time it’s on the outside and falls back inside?
I do believe when Elijah in the bible went up in a whirlwind this was quantum tunneling ,also the wells they dug in the old Testament these are also symbolic of this
actually there is neither destruction of the potential barrier nor tunneling,but electron behaves like a wave and disappears near barrier and appears other side
Hey Please discuss this question-"The wall of death fairground ride: it's spinning in a horizontal circle. Then the floor that people are standing on falls away. Calculate how fast it has to spin before the floor can fall away without the people dropping out given that : coefficient of friction=m and radius of the thing=r. Or please reply me in detail. I know it's not of your level but...
I am an undergrad majoring in physics. And I am currently preparing my dissertation on quantum tunneling. Anyone has suggestions for books that might be helpful for reference?? Thanks!
Thank you for your great explanation. In the Schrodinger equation, is V the potential energy of the region around the electron or is it the potential energy of the electron itself? My textbook, in my understanding, says V is the potential of the electron, whereas E is its total energy (sum of potential and kinetic energies). If this is the case, how can potential energy be greater than total energy?
V is the potential of a field. That field is a classical approximation that does, in reality, not exist. If you wanted to understand the microscopic mechanism for tunneling, then you would have to quantize the field as well and then you could treat this scattering problem with perturbation theory and you would see that "the particle" does not move in a potential but it scatters in a sea of other particles. It would still be the wrong explanation, but at least you would think that you understood what is going on.
Wow.... thank you! I actually understood your explanation, despite the fact that I’m a retired Physiotherapist of 72. I have always had an interest in physics and it was such a thrill to be able to follow along with you.
My theory is that a particle, under certain conditions, can transfer its charge to its momentum, causing it to collapse the wave function temporarily, and therefore eliminating the barrier. Because the particle expended energy in this way, it now exists in the lower energy state. Its charge is depleted. This is because the electron is made of even smaller particles that are truly fundamental and are responsible for mass, charge and spin. When they align in a specific way, some are discharged from the electron's shell, generating momentum. The electron then redistributes its remaining particles to return to equilibrium. We do not register those smaller particles because when they fly away in a straight line, they are superluminal. It is only when their path curves, generating curved spacetime, they slow to 1/5th and give their energy to momentum by the flywheel effect which in turn lightens the mass. The mass energy is the number of particles inside. The charge is the potential for that energy to be released. The spin is based on the grouping of particles into two (spin 1 in bosons) or three (spin 1/2 in fermions) groups in orbit around each other. For those not in the know, that's primarily classical, not quantum mechanics, because classical looks for causes in physical bodies, not fuzzy collections of wave functions. What proves particles real is that they are subject to the wave function only as long as the wave function is active. It is only active as long as the particle remains subject to the cosmological constant. (Which is a whole other subject in itself.)
Get on with tunneling dude!!!! The subexplanations became so interrupting that I had to stop viewing from frustration! Edit: you still got a thumbs up for the eventual info which was actually very good
The Schroedinger equation takes a classical potential V(x) as input. It does not tell us where this classical potential came from or what kind of physical system can cause it. We call a situation like that "not self-consistent", i.e. the theory can not predict physical phenomena on its own and it can not describe the inputs (V(x)) that it needs in its own terms (the potential always stays classical, it is not quantized). Newtonian mechanics suffers from the same problem: it can describe how matter moves, but it has no way of describing what matter is. In electrodynamics we can talk about how charges cause fields, but we can't say what charges are (microscopically). This situation is not satisfactorily resolved until we learn about quantum field theory, which is self-consistent, but that self-consistency comes at an enormous price which can be measured in thousands of pages of non-trivial mathematical operations that we need to work through to even get close to solving non-trivial physical problems. At this level of physics there is a small catalog of useful potentials that _approximate_ certain physical situations. The quadratic potential tells us how the linear harmonic oscillator behaves in the quantized regime. The 1/r potential gives us (part) of the solution structure of the most simple atomic physics problems. Periodic potentials V(x) = sin(x) allow us to derive the band structure of solids. Potential wells like the one shown in the video make for a reasonable (if coarse) approximation of the very short range strong force in nuclei. That these potentials "make sense" is validated by the match between experiments and their theoretical explanations that use these potentials. What you do not get to see in videos on RU-vid (but you would be exposed to it in the university classroom) is the experimental side of the theory that is being shown here. The way this typically works is that you are taking an introductory class in quantum mechanics that teaches you how to solve the Schroedinger equation for these potentials and the following semester you take a phenomenological atomic physics class where the theory is put to use to derive atomic and molecular spectra. You may also do an experimental course where you get to measure the spectra of atoms and you get to fit the data to the theoretical predictions yourself (and that data might even fit with 10% precision or better, depending on which spectral lines we get to measure). If you chose to become a working physicist (in atomic, molecular, nuclear or solid state physics), then you might develop an intuition for what kind of potential to use for a new experimental situation. That, however, takes time and experience.
Awwww shut dude I suck at this type of stuff especially the math but I kinda understood you! The diagrams help me more, I like the practical demonstration more than the mathematical expression so thank you!
Classical E&M displays a phenomenon akin to tunneling. It has to do with light propagating through layers of media with alternating layers the same index of refraction. I don't want to explain in detail but wanted to point out tunneling can be thought of as a wave like phenomena, not a particle like one.
Wow parth sir , you're amazing , but I'd like to know why is there unequal probability of finding electron in particular place and what makes certain places have more probability than the other ones?
Happy New Year, dude. I seem to remember that QT has something to do with transistors at very small size (< 5nm). The electrons may tunnel through the base when scale gets below a certain size. Do I have this right?
please do a video on , how accelerating charges produce electromagnetic waves ? what is difference blw a moving charge and an acceleraring charge ? i saw one video explaining that moving charges only create magnetic fields , but net electric field is 0 . please explain this ..
