There was a "typo" in the last two lines on your chalkboard. You left out the "x^2" term. Nevertheless, the answer to the original limit is correct. As an aside, could you do one more squeeze theorem example? Thanks!
I am a 9th grader & really love math......... I was pretty much onto calculus, but only this was what was troubling me, even when I understood Jacobian........ Thank you so much sir for explaining this topic 😊
One small remark. When wrote the second inequality (with e) you said you did not have to change the inequality signs because e to x is positive. The real reason is not that but the fact that e to x is a growing function. Also e to negative x is always positive but it is a diminishing function, and in that case you would need to change the inequality signs.
Take the natural log of this expression: limit as x→0 of 2*ln(x)+sin(1/x) is -∞ since |sin(1/x)|≤1. Thus, e^(-∞)=0, so the limit of x^2*e^sin(1/x) t as x→0 is 0.
Sir I have a doubt that if we put a value near 0 like 0.000001 for x and see we find that the graph of x^2 approaches very fast towards 0 and the value of e^ sin (1/x) is always finite because we can use the thita braking method of 90 multiple and adding the rest part thus in this way we can find the value of it as 0 easily
@@PrimeNewtons yes actually I am in class 9 and I use my father's Google account so yes I think it was new to me so thankyou sir for letting me know about such a good theory😁
Solution: one function is bounded, the other approaches zero. Hence so does the product of the two functions. All these words and equations are unnecessary. Learning math is, in part, learning to be concise.