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This Differential Equation is Nuts 

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2 июл 2024

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Комментарии : 82   
@AlBoulley
@AlBoulley 18 дней назад
"Life is like differentials and integration… you never know what the fuck you are going to get" -Flammy Gump
@zunaidparker
@zunaidparker 18 дней назад
I think you're missing the cases where c=0 or c
@ralfbodemann1542
@ralfbodemann1542 18 дней назад
Great. _You presented the solution for C > 0. But you also need to consider the cases C=0 und C< 0. BTW: I noticed LHS = d/dx(y^2/2) and RHS = d/dx(y'). If you tranformed the original equation that way, you could have immediately performed the first integration.
@elibrahimi1169
@elibrahimi1169 16 дней назад
@@ralfbodemann1542 see that's what i am talking about, he probably just wanted to show another method
@liamschreibman8268
@liamschreibman8268 18 дней назад
Hi, I'm a high school further maths student in London. I just want to say that I love your videos! Lots of people appreciate your work, myself included.
@symphonyofsolidarity
@symphonyofsolidarity 16 дней назад
GCSE advanced or the one before that? I mean o or a levels?
@liamschreibman8268
@liamschreibman8268 15 дней назад
A level​@symphonyofsolidarity
@symphonyofsolidarity
@symphonyofsolidarity 14 дней назад
@@liamschreibman8268 nice! I'm from igcse o levels :)
@dank.
@dank. 18 дней назад
This differential equation reminded me a lot of your video on exactly solving for the period of an undamped pendulum. Mostly the start of that approach in recognizing the forms of derivatives, at least how I approached the problem (haven't watched the video yet). We can start by recognizing that the lhs looks pretty chain rule-y. We can express it as the derivative of (y^2)/2. The rhs is also just the derivative of y, so we can integrate both sides to get rid of the derivatives. This leaves us with (y^2)/2 = y'. We can move all the factors of y to one side. Doing this gives us (y')/(y^2) = 1/2. The lhs once again looks chain rule-y, and we can see that it can be rewritten as the derivative of -1/y. Making that substitution, we can once again integrate both sides to get -1/y = x/2 + c. Rearranging we get the final answer of y=(-2)/(x+c) Fun diffie-q!
@romanvolotov
@romanvolotov 18 дней назад
my immediate thought was to recognise the original LHS as (½y²)'. then it's quite similar to the video. this thing often pops up in physics from what i can tell. thanks for the video
@brashmane2749
@brashmane2749 8 дней назад
And it was very popular with several of my examinators... Especially with C belonging somewhere on Z...
@nonamehere9658
@nonamehere9658 18 дней назад
At ~4:00 You've concluded something of the sorts: if A(x)*B(x)=0 for all x, then either A(x)=0 for all x or B(x)=0 for all x, which isn't necessarily true -- e.g. suppose a counterxample A(x) = [x==1], B(x) = [x=/=1] (this specific example isn't continuous, but there are other continuous A(x),B(x)) I didn't follow very closely derivation for tan, but intuition tells me that y(x) can be a piecewise combination of constant function (on some subset of reals) + the tan from the second parth of the video on the other subset of the reals. Maybe can be even combined such that y(x) is smooth and y'(x) is also smooth.
@PixelSergey
@PixelSergey 14 дней назад
I was wondering this as well! That step should not necessarily hold. I wonder how you would fix this step in the solution 😄
@cribless810
@cribless810 18 дней назад
Man youre getting spammed with "please solve jee questions now" so sad
@tmrapper6378
@tmrapper6378 13 дней назад
He'll benefit from that
@elibrahimi1169
@elibrahimi1169 18 дней назад
6:13 couldn't we just integrate both sides from the very beginning and get the same result ?
@jameslawson9754
@jameslawson9754 17 дней назад
we dont know what the integral of y’ or y’’ with respect to y is
@elibrahimi1169
@elibrahimi1169 17 дней назад
@@jameslawson9754 the i integral of yy' is 1/2 * y² and that of y" is y', and add a constant
@lucasredondo4234
@lucasredondo4234 17 дней назад
@@elibrahimi1169the integral of y dy is y^2/2 , not the integral of y dy/dx , dy/dx being y’
@elibrahimi1169
@elibrahimi1169 17 дней назад
@@lucasredondo4234 if you differentiate 1/2* y² you get yy' by the chain rule and the power rule, by that logic the antiderivative of yy' is 1/2 y² + C
@elibrahimi1169
@elibrahimi1169 17 дней назад
@@lucasredondo4234 alright let's go with your logic ; the integral has a built in dx in it so the integral of int y dy/dx dx=int y dy =1/2 y² + C
@constantinzimmer1747
@constantinzimmer1747 18 дней назад
also y =-2/(x+k) for c = 0 right?
@dank.
@dank. 18 дней назад
For c=0 you get the y=0 case, but for values of c very close to 0, yes.
@DangiMiner
@DangiMiner 18 дней назад
​@@dank.Actually he's right. In case c=0 you get this solution, not y=0.
@charlesspringer4709
@charlesspringer4709 18 дней назад
Nice. Presentation tip: Never use the word "what" unless you are asking a question. Eliminate "what we are going to do is we are going to" and "what we are going to do" and "we are going to". Also good to eliminate their friends "What you wanna do now is you wanna", etc. It takes some practice. I did it while teaching, so anybody can. "The last thing we are going to do now is we are going to..." ==> "Now..."
@Ordnas95
@Ordnas95 18 дней назад
Thank you Charles
@zillibran
@zillibran 11 дней назад
he said "waa" or "wa" has in y, IDIOT
@zillibran
@zillibran 11 дней назад
​​@@Ordnas95 he said "waa" or "wai" has in y
@zillibran
@zillibran 11 дней назад
he said "waa" or "wa" has in y
@hornkneeeee
@hornkneeeee 18 дней назад
i saw that y=0 holds for this equation then realised any constant would work, Proof by observation as the experts call it
@tangsolaris9533
@tangsolaris9533 12 дней назад
Trivial
@TrailersReheard
@TrailersReheard 18 дней назад
THIS IS WHAT IM TALKIN ABOUT WAHOO
@garnetg987
@garnetg987 18 дней назад
That opening meme about the 347% error made me burst out in laughter. Great video.
@ImLucky6
@ImLucky6 7 дней назад
i would probably start by converting these into mcclaurn series, and then just pray from there
@senco445
@senco445 13 дней назад
Fabulous! This was highly entertaining!
@falquicao8331
@falquicao8331 12 дней назад
There are two missing solutions for c=0, y = -2/(x+r) And c
@XanderGouws
@XanderGouws 16 дней назад
My favorite solution is -2/x >:) It's easy enough to show its a solution by plugging it into the initial equation. Though it's not explicitly in the class of solutions you found, you get it when you take c->0 asymptotically and constrain kappa = sqrt(2c) * pi/2.
@stevenwilson5556
@stevenwilson5556 11 дней назад
10:36 "this is the beauty of differentials and integration, you never know what the fuck you're going to get"
@rastakov1899
@rastakov1899 4 дня назад
Thank you for your video.
@renesperb
@renesperb 13 дней назад
If you see that (1/2y[x]^2)' = y[x]*y'[x] you find that y ' =1/2 y^2+const. ,which is a separable differential equation , and it is easy to solve.
@ibnSafaa
@ibnSafaa 11 дней назад
You can rewrite it as : y = C.tan(Ax+B)
@robsbros2
@robsbros2 18 дней назад
I actually got one of these right!?!?!?!?!? wow. I just noticed that d/dx(y^2) = 2y dy/dx
@speadskater
@speadskater 18 дней назад
This could be written as an exponential
@vatsalyavashisth828
@vatsalyavashisth828 16 дней назад
great video !!! 10:39 XD
@tszhanglau5747
@tszhanglau5747 17 дней назад
should have titled this "Deez Differential Equation is Nuts"
@brickie9816
@brickie9816 11 дней назад
i approached it like so: yy' = y'' 2yy' = 2y'' yy' + yy' = 2y'' (y*y)' = 2y'' (power rule) y^2 = 2y' (integrate both sides) y^2/2 = y' i have arrived at the same expression as you but didn't know how to continue so i very much appreciate the video!
@ntuneric
@ntuneric 10 дней назад
+C
@brickie9816
@brickie9816 9 дней назад
@@ntuneric good catch, idk how I could have forgotten
@PixelSergey
@PixelSergey 14 дней назад
You said that (y-dt/dy)*t=0 for all x implies that (y-dt/dy)=0 for all x or t=0 for all x. But surely one can be zero on some interval and the other can be zero on the other intervals? 4:02
@MauriceL2006
@MauriceL2006 15 дней назад
Differential equations are fun that by some nontrivial transformation sometimes we can reduce the equation we know how to solve ❤
@JacquesRGAO
@JacquesRGAO 18 дней назад
yy'=1/2(f^2)', thus $\frac{f^2}{2}-f'=C$, now this is a separable equation, something like $f=k\frac{Ae^{kx}+1}{Ae^{kx}-1}$...
@user-cj9uj9wb5m
@user-cj9uj9wb5m 18 дней назад
yy'=y" 1/2Dy^2=Dy' 1/2y^2=y' Int dx=Int 2/y^2 dy x +c =2/y y=2/x+c
@adityamishra0706
@adityamishra0706 18 дней назад
It's good
@samueldeandrade8535
@samueldeandrade8535 18 дней назад
It seems someone wrote yy' = y'' instead of $yy' = y''$
@tusharsr2709
@tusharsr2709 15 дней назад
the base question was integrable in itself, you'd get the same result
@Wielorybkek
@Wielorybkek 17 дней назад
neat!
@brandonklein1
@brandonklein1 13 дней назад
You missed an interesting solution if C=0 though! If c=0 y=-1/x, which is also a solution.
@ShadowPhoenix4798
@ShadowPhoenix4798 13 дней назад
y•y^’=y^(‘•’) y^(‘+1)=y^(‘^2) log_y both sides ‘+1=‘^2 -(‘),-1 both sides 0=(‘^2)-(‘)-1 >is quadratic in form a=1, b=(-1), c=(-1) => (1(+/-)sqrt(1-(-4))/2 => (1(+/-)sqrt(5))/2 Positive happens to work out to (‘)= golden ratio Negative is (1-sqrt(5))/2 >cursed, but cool coincidence. Final answer; (‘) = φ, (1-sqrt(5))/2
@demetrib2956
@demetrib2956 7 дней назад
You forgot the solution when c=0 not just when c=! 0 ❤
@samueldeandrade8535
@samueldeandrade8535 18 дней назад
Flammy looking hot, in more than one way. We gonna have shirtless video one day? ❤
@machoodin5172
@machoodin5172 18 дней назад
Why c cant be 0? If c was zero the integral would have another solution
@denizgoksu9868
@denizgoksu9868 18 дней назад
I like that schizo chain rule way of transforming the equation
@Himanish-wu6ip
@Himanish-wu6ip 12 дней назад
I think another solution is y=-2/x
@victory6468
@victory6468 14 дней назад
I got -2/x
@mastershooter64
@mastershooter64 14 дней назад
plz eolve JBEE Retreat questions they arecthe heardest examn in de world1!1!!!1!1!1!!!1!1!!! Jokes aside that is a pretty crazy ODE
@nif4345
@nif4345 18 дней назад
y=0
@johnwt7333
@johnwt7333 17 дней назад
Shirtless video soon?
@mizjackyhoward3495
@mizjackyhoward3495 18 дней назад
Woohoo
@sans1331
@sans1331 16 дней назад
simple. yy’=y’’ raise both sides to the power of 1/‘ yy=y’ y^2=y’ ‘=2 edit: this is a joke btw lmao
@ShadowPhoenix4798
@ShadowPhoenix4798 13 дней назад
If we still take “‘“ as a variable, the actual answer is that ‘ has two solutions, one of which is the golden ratio, which i find even more cursed than what this is.
@ShadowPhoenix4798
@ShadowPhoenix4798 13 дней назад
If ‘=2, y^(2+1)=y^(2^2) Simplifies to y^3=y^4, which is only true at y=0
@ozzymandius666
@ozzymandius666 14 дней назад
You should have been a physicist. Physicists are the people who forget factors of 1/2, sign changes, etc.
@kappascopezz5122
@kappascopezz5122 16 дней назад
My approach: y y' = y'' (y²)'/2 = y'' Integrate both sides (I'm ignoring the +C because the problem will be annoying, I'm not doing partial fractal decomposition) : y³/6 = dy/dx Separation of variables: int dx = 6 int 1/y³ dy x = 6/(-2) * 1/y² + A x = A - 3/y² 1/y² = A - x/3 y = 1/sqrt(A - x/3)
@ofridaniel2127
@ofridaniel2127 18 дней назад
2 views in 3 seconds bro has fell off
@adityamishra0706
@adityamishra0706 18 дней назад
Plz solve jee advanced questions ❤
@tophatjones6241
@tophatjones6241 18 дней назад
Please Solve JEE Advanced Questions
@virat.chauhan
@virat.chauhan 18 дней назад
Motivate him to solve something serious i.e. Millennium Problems
@jorex6816
@jorex6816 18 дней назад
​@@virat.chauhan haha
@ntuneric
@ntuneric 10 дней назад
i did it as y'=p(y) y''=(p(y))'=p'y'=p'p. here p'=dp/dy yp=p'p case 1. p=0 → y'=0 → y=constant case 2. p≠0 → p'=y → p=½y²+k from here y'/(½y²+k)=1 if k > 0, k=2A² → y = 2A·tan(Ax+B) if k = 0 → y=-2/(x+C) if k < 0, k=-2A² → -2A·tanh(Ax+B)
@ntuneric
@ntuneric 10 дней назад
(the video told me to post my solution before watching so i didnt know i would have the same approach also peeprimepee peepeeprime)