the quick answer would be No -- because it's not automatically assumed that in every case following divine law would be an expression of/lead to autonomy on the part of person so doing. And likewise, the opposite would not be assumed either. From the perspective of someone like Thomas Aquinas, you'd want to make some qualifications or distinctions in framing the question(s) you want to ask, which I take it has something to do with freedom, divine law(s), and the person obeying/following
That would be the New (divine) Law you're discussing, as St. Thomas teaches about it -- this is a video to assist students in studying St. Thomas' work, not really a site to debate theology.
It might be neither, actually. Ideally, it is an application to particular circumstances and cultures of the natural law. Often, that's not the case, though
Gregory B. Sadler In other words human law is simply the laws made by humans, which is ideally based off of natural law and/or divine law. Am I understanding this correctly?
The uniqueness of the Bible shows that following the divine law to gain favor in God's eyes is useless. Jesus, who was God as a man, tells us looking with lust is adultery. He says to pluck out your eye if it causes you to sin, because it's better for part of your body to perish rather than your whole body to perish in hell. No one can save themselves by doing this. It is only repentance of sin and faith in Christ because God is only pleased by his Son, not our pious/righteous acts we have done.
