WHICH VERSION OF THE BIBLE IS ACCURATE? 

Amen!

Amen and Amen 🙏🙏🙏🙏

You and Rick Renner would get along beautifully! I can see you two talking about the Bible for hours at an end and a book or two would come out of that conversation.

An example or two would help illustrate your point, and provide a much stronger argument.

God bless you for such excellent answer and observation. What you said is true. I have been Christian for little over 45 years. Even as babe in Christ it is the Lord kept teaching me, loving me training me, with which ever bible. Thanks

A sincere Bible reader does not want "a literal translation", but an accurate translation, one that precisely conveys what is spoken in one language, such as from Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek, to the target language.

@@v1e1r1g1e1 AND @timhaley3459 Tim, I totally agree with you that anybody reading a translation needs to read what is being accurately conveyed in the words used, rather than a totally ‘literal’ translation. Which is why I said in my original post that a translation also requires “a sense of 'principle' and even 'cultural essence' in their meaning….”. So v1e1r1g1e1, as you requested, below is a one example of many which hopefully adequately conveys all of what I mean? If we look to Romans 1:20 and Ephesians 2:10, we see: In Ephesians 2:10 we read “For we are God’s WORKMANSHIP/HANDIWORK, created in Christ Jesus to do good works, which God prepared in advance for us to do.” So here we read what we as God’s people are, and then we see in Romans 1:20 “For since the creation of the world God’s invisible qualities - His eternal power and divine nature - have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been MADE, so that people are without excuse.”. Here, we see in both of these, how God created His people and His world. Personally, when I read these 2 verses in any English translation, the words used always raise in my mind a picture of somebody in a workshop constructing, or building, making, something….. However, the interesting part of this is that in Ephesians where we see the words ‘workmanship’, or ‘handiwork’ or other according to the translation you’re using, and in Romans where we see the word ‘made’, it is in fact the same word in Greek - ‘poema’ - and these 2 verses are the only 2 verses anywhere that this word is used. The reality of this is that, had The Holy Spirit wanted us to read this in English as ‘workmanship’, or ‘handiwork’, or ‘made’, then He could easily have just used the root, ‘poiesiai’ of the word ‘poema’ which He chose to use, as the root word does actually mean what the various English translations He used. However, The Holy Spirit chose to instead ‘elevate’ the root word to ‘poema’, which is a word we still use in modern Greek - which means ‘POEM’. Something created in a workshop, made or built, is what the English speaks of in the words used, but the reality, is the Greek word which speaks to me of being created in passion and love, as is a poem. Coming from the very heart of the poet who created the poem, expressing the poets love and passion! THAT is what The Holy Spirit was looking to express/portray in His careful choice of word and every English translation failed to deliver. I LOVE the thought that my Lord God & Saviour created me with love and passion of His Heart in Word, and not in a ‘workshop’ somewhere. The original Word chosen by The Holy Spirit has elevated the message given in those verses, giving us an insight into how Our Lord God sees and considers us, which when I read it in Greek there was never any doubt, but loses a fair amount in all English translations.

I have done the same for a while. But now the NKJV has put the Wicca symbol on a few I've noticed. So that's a bit disturbing! Maybe this is a specific producer! I'm not certain! Just a concern I'm now having anyways!

@@Luckalos I have never heard of the NKJV having a Wicca symbol. My church has used the NKJV for years with good clarity and understanding. For my personal study, I use the NKJV together with the Greek and Hebrew Interlinear bible. I like to have an understanding of words and verses in the original languages. Of course I don't expect a baby Christian to be doing that. I tell them to start with the book of John in the NKJV.

​@FollowerOfJesus615 How little most people know, the so called wicca symbol was used thousands of years earlier and was even used in Christianity before the cross symbol was used. The early church did not use a cross to identify as christian for the simple reason that it was seen as a sign of torture and death.

Though the King James Bible has been a "mainstay" for centuries, it is archaic (or out of date language), inaccurate and misleads its readers, for having examined it over many years with Hebrew, Aramaic and Koine Greek manuscripts, it is "out of touch" with accuracy, and even pushes the false doctrine of "the Holy Trinity". It does so with spurious additions as at Acts 7:59, whereby the word "God" is NOT in the most ancient Greek manuscripts (and the King James Bible places it brackets to show it as an addition), such as the Codex Vaticanus of about 350 C.E. (that predates the King James Bible by some 1,250 years), so that it accurately reads: "As they were stoning Stephen, he made this appeal: “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.”(New World Translation) Or the misleading reading of Genesis 13:1-3, that says according to the King James Bible: "And Abram went up out of Egypt, he, and his wife, and all that he had, and Lot with him, into the south. And Abram was very rich in cattle, in silver, and in gold. And he went on his journeys from the south even to Bethel, unto the place where his tent had been at the beginning, between Bethel and Hai", making it seem as if Abraham is going "south" out of Egypt, when, in fact, he was going NORTH. Because the King James Bible mistranslates the Hebrew word negeb here, which means not just "south", in which the Hebrew word teyman always means "south, southern", and found 23 times in the Bible, the Hebrew word negeb also means the southern region of Judah west and below the Dead Sea, as at Genesis 24:62, and the King James Bible mistranslates it as "the south country", confusing its readers. However, at Genesis 24:62, Isaac was coming from the direction Beer-lahai-rio (on the border with Egypt, and translated as "the well Lahai-roi" in KJV), and was going NORTHEAST back to "the Negeb" where he lived when Rebekah arrived from Mesopotamia (Gen 24:10). So, when Abraham left Egypt at Genesis 13, he traveled NOT "south", but NORTH, through "the Negeb" or southern region of the tribal territory of Judah (or wilderness of Zin, Num 13:21) on his way to where he was before, where he built an altar between Bethel and Ai when he left Ur of the Chaldeans at God's command (Gen 12:1, 8; Acts 7:1-3), for here is an accurate reading of Genesis 13:1-4: "Aʹbram then went up out of Egypt (northward) to the Negʹeb, he and his wife and all that he had, together with Lot. Aʹbram was very rich in livestock, silver, and gold. He camped in one place after another as he traveled from the Negʹeb to Bethʹel, until he arrived at the place where his tent had been between Bethʹel and Aʹi (some 12 miles north of Jerusalem), to the place where he had previously built an altar. There Aʹbram called on the name of Jehovah (God's name, see Ps 83:18; Isa 12:2, KJV)."(New World Translation) Or at John 3:16, that reads according to the King James Bible: "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." However, the lack of accuracy is seen there, for here is how it precisely reads: "For God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son, so that everyone exercising faith ("exercising faith", Greek pisteuo eis, meaning " faith in motion" and NOT just "believeth", which is the Greek word pisteuo by itself, as at Matt 21:25, 32) in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life."(New World Translation) Or of its archaic language, as at 2 Thessalonians 2:7, that reads according to the King James Bible: "For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way", while it accurately reads: "True, the mystery of this lawlessness is already at work, but only until the one who is right now acting as a restraint is out of the way."(New World Translation) At Philippians 1:9, 10, the apostle Paul wrote: "And this is what I continue praying, that your love may abound still more and more with accurate knowledge ("accurate knowledge", Greek epignosis, meaning "precise and correct knowledge", but which the KJV renders as just "knowledge", which is the Greek word gnosis) and full discernment; that you may make sure of the more important things, so that you may be flawless and not stumbling others up to the day of Christ."(New World Translation) So, everyone has a choice to make, of keeping a Bible that is inaccurate, archaic, such as "thees and thous", and keeps them "in the dark", or reach for an accurate Bible that they can trust, whereby the 2013 New World Translation is just that.

God will preserve his word. His word is true and upright. I don't believe God's word changes. In fact, it is unchanging. He didn't give us a flawed version in the KJV or one words that would somehow fade or change over time as you seem to suggest. Archaic? I strongly disagree. I think referencing several versions is fine and good sometimes, but I've studied a lot of the differences in new versions and after that study and also hearing what brother Robert Breaker reiterated in his studies about KJV only, I'm convinced that KJV is the only version for me.

@@timhaley3459The KJV is the words of God preserved in the global language of the last days. It corrects the Greek and the Hebrew. Why do I make that claim? Our scholars' knowledge of Greek and Hebrew is almost completely based on studies of crude pagan writings (much not even contemporaneous with the Bible).

@@RezuSlasher The King James Bible is NOT " the words of God preserved in the global language of the last days", for it is not only archaic, but at times grossly inaccurate, as was shown in my comment, but which you and so many others conveniently "overlooked". So many are like what the apostle Peter wrote at 2 Peter 3: "First of all know this, that in the last days ridiculers will come with their ridicule, proceeding according to their own desires and saying: “Where is this promised presence ("presence", Greek parousia, meaning "presence, arrival", as at Phil 2:12, that is contrasted with "absence", and NOT "coming" that is the Greek word erchomai, as at Matt 16:28; 24:30; 26:64) of his ? Why, from the day our forefathers fell asleep in death, all things are continuing exactly as they were from creation’s beginning.” "For they deliberately IGNORE this fact (or clear, sound evidence), that long ago there were heavens and an earth standing firmly out of water and in the midst of water by the word of God; and that by those means the world of that time suffered destruction when it was flooded with water. But by the same word the heavens and the earth that now exist are reserved for fire and are being kept until the day of judgment and of destruction of the ungodly people."(2 Pet 3:3-7, New World Translation) For example, at Acts 12:4, the King James Bible renders the Greek word pascha, meaning "Passover", as "Easter" instead of accurately as Passover, as at Matthew 26:2; Mark 14:1; Luke 2:41; 22:1; John 2:13; 6:4; 11:55; 1 Cor 5:7. At 1 Timothy 3:16, the King James Bible reads inaccurately: "God was manifest in the flesh", while accurately it reads that "He (Greek hos, meaning "who, which, what, that", and NOT "theos", meaning "god") was manifest in the flesh", speaking of Jesus Christ. He is the one "declared righteous in spirit" (which definitely shows Jesus as NOT God, see John 10:36, for God NEVER needs to be "declared righteous" or "justified", for he is the one who established the holy standard of righteousness), appeared to angels (1 Pet 3:19), was preached about among nations, was believed upon in the world, was received up in glory".(New World Translation) At Matthew 5:22, the King James Bible (as well as the Catholic Douay Version) fails to translate the Greek word rhaka, simply leaving it as "Raca", since at that time its meaning was not understood, and whereby only by the 20th century was its meaning clearly understood, as "an unspeakable word of contempt".(New World Translation) An accurate understanding of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Koine Greek fell far short of when the King James Bible was published in 1611 (plus how the English language was spoken then, as is if it is a different language altogether), while today, it is as Daniel 12:9, 10 states: "Then he said: “Go, Daniel, because the words are to be kept secret and sealed up until the time of the end. Many will cleanse themselves and whiten themselves and will be refined. And the wicked ones will act wickedly, and none of the wicked will understand; but those having INSIGHT will understand."(New World Translation) English speaking people normally speak "modern English", and should want a Bible that is accurate, but so many remain "stuck in a rut" and continue to claim that King James Bible was handed to men "straight out of heaven". A sincere Bible reader should want what the apostle Paul said: "And this is what I continue praying, that your love may abound still more and more with accurate knowledge ("accurate knowledge", Greek epignosis, meaning "precise and correct knowledge", but which the King James Bible renders only as "knowledge") and full discernment;" "that you may make sure ("make sure", Greek dokimazo, meaning "to test, examine, scrutinize, prove") of the more important things (or verify for accuracy), so that you may be flawless and not stumbling others up to the day of Christ; and that you may be filled with righteous fruit, which is through Jesus Christ, to God’s glory and praise."(Phil 1:9-11, New World Translation)

Lol in a 100 years the kjv will not be readable. Maybe sooner than that If language keeps changing at the rate it is. I dare you to go try and read some real old English and see how far you get in it.

That's because Lucifer was at the time

It isn't just the NIV. The Complete Jewish Bible also uses the same terminology. Do you know why?

​@@wills7817why don't you enlighten us?

@meangirlhockey2812 Lucifer is the son of the Morning. Jesus is the Bright and the Morningstar.

Best comment here.

No, he completely disregarded it. It is based on both manuscript groups, plus the masoretic text, but I think he has some bias so he leaves it out. idk

@@lucarich8711 Thanks for the reply. It is sort of odd he didn't mention it, as it is highly regarded my many scholars (although I am sure there are those who aren't fans), but maybe he thought if he touched on the NASB he would have to address many other translations. Whoy knows? I use both NASB and KJV/NKJV.

Is it in English?

@@MysteStorm Yes

They are same as the NIV because they pre-date the Byzantine manuscripts and there is a miniscule difference between the two.

Except for the parts altered due to King James requiring the translators to alter things to his liking.

All that the Father gives to Jesus will come. Period. Anytime you want to get your name blotted out of the book of life start adding to Gods Word. Take away from it. Fix it if you dare. God offers no exceptions for messing with His Word.

You complain and then use niv. Really. Lame

Have you ever looked at how many verses are absent from the NIV? It is alarming that God's inspired word has been modified and people accept it. Beware the enemy who is far more clever in his deceptions than any human.

Erasmus might just disagree with your first statement...

That the KJV was not translated from Hebrew or Greek is a most interesting thing to say when there are happenings such as the 1517 founding of Corpus Cristi College at Oxford by one of King Henry VIII's advisors with that college library having scriptural manuscripts in Greek, Hebrew, and Latin, & when the introductory essay affixed to the 1611 edition was quite long and several paragraphs about Bible translation from various languages in to various languages through history, and notes that the translators much preferred Greek and Hebrew to a translation named the Syriac text. Last paragraph of their 'wall of text' preface begins with, "Many other things we might give the warning of (gentle reader) if we had not exceeded the measure of a Preface already". And 'exceed' they did, by several pages! And then back to the Bible itself, if Greek and Hebrew texts were not employed in creation of the KJV, why then did the original 1611 issue contain margin note addressing the meanings of certain Greek and Hebrew words? ➡ That bit about some words changing their meaning in the intervening centuries brings to mind a secular book I'm rereading titled Words on the Move by linguist John McWhorter. There are some food words even as basic as meat, fruit, bread, crumbs, whose meanings have migrated and understanding what their meanings were at time of the KJVs creation might shift, increase, understanding of certain sayings. The word prevent also comes to mind, its meaning was shifting at the time from the original pre, before, vent, from Latin verb to go, (remember Veni, Vidi, Vici?) as in 'precede', to a new meaning of keeping a thing from happening. At least one KJV I've read has it used both ways in the text.

1. Your statement is false making you a liar. The Hebrew, Greek, and Latin used are well documented. Available to you for research. Why make blatantly false statements? 2. The 1611 Authorized King James Bible reads on a 5th grade level. For the most part it is monosyllabic. Proven to be easier to memorize. Most importantly it is the only word for word translation available in English. It comes directly from a library of over 5,000 early Christian Bibles that agree on 99% of all doctrine. All corrupt modern versions aren’t even translations. They are a satanic attempt to replace the Word of God with the codex vaticanus. A heretical document from under the popes desk! The NIV removed 64,000 words from the Bible!

The Latin is a translation from the Greek. He should have used the Greek text instead

Fool

@@paddyoak1 The real fool are those who believe and consider as sacred the fairy tales, fictions, and myths just because a book claims itself to be the holy truth.

So anyone who can’t read English doesn’t have an approved Bible in your view.

​@@jeffc5474 He is one of those KJV only cultists. They are among the most uneducated and stupidest cultists. Notice he has no answer to your comment. When confronted they always vanish.

Yeah, what about the 90% of the world's population that doesn't speak English.!!

What translation do you suggest for the 90% of the world's population that doesn't speak English.?

Hey hp7093, I'm waiting for your answer. What version do you suggest for the 90% of the world's population that doesn't speak English.? What is your answer.??

Do you accuse God of being a liar? He promised to preserve His Word for every generation. If it’s lost like you say. That we only have a gist. That makes God a liar.

@@phillipgoodson2057NOBODY accused or declared God a liar!!!! I accuse MAN of being LIARS !!! If you honestly think that book is 100% accurate you are a ….. FOOL

So if one doesn’t speak or read English then, according to you, they don’t have a God approved Bible. What a hypocrite. The language God first used was Hebrew, and the New Testament was first written in Greek.

Remember, cultist, English wasn’t a language in the time of Jesus.

Your statement is false. Things that are different are not the same. All corrupt modern versions aren’t translations. They are satanic attempts to replace the Word of God with the codex vaticanus. A heretical document from under the popes desk. It differs from the Christian Bible in thousands of documented places. What does God have to say about changing His Words? Do you care?

No, it is loaded with many a bad translation and errors. The most accurate Bibles are written in Hebrew for the Old Testament, and Greek for the New Testament.

@@jeffc5474 Then you stick with them. I'll stick with the KJV Bible. Have a blessed day.

16:2 first day of the week. This evidences that the early church met on Sunday (Acts 20:7). The point is that giving must occur regularly, not just when one feels generous, particularly led to do so, or instructed to do so for some special purpose (cf. Luke 6:38; cf. 2 Cor. 9:6, 7). as he may prosper. No required amount or percentage for giving to the Lord’s work is specified in the NT. All giving to the Lord is to be free will giving and completely discretionary (see Luke 6:38; 2 Cor. 9:6-8). This is not to be confused with the OT required giving of 3 tithes (see Lev. 27:30; Num. 18:21-26; Deut. 14:28, 29; Mal. 3:8-10) which totaled about 23 percent annually to fund the national government of Israel, take care of public festivals, and provide welfare. Modern parallels to the OT tithe are found in the taxation system of countries (Rom. 13:6). OT giving to God was not regulated as to amount (see Ex. 25:1, 2; 35:21; 36:6; Prov. 3:9, 10; 11:24).

@@OklaBoondocks The misleading have because some people say this bible that bible KJV or NIV. dont do that plz. Study God words and research original Greek. Available online and word by word translation too in book Hebrew-English Greek-English. Not much but have problems with a KJV too.

Erasmus might just disagree with you...

@@repentnow1720 lol. There are many who don't agree with me

You are a false witness. Why won’t you provide a single scripture to support your claim? It is simple, you have nothing in the Bible that supports your claim. You say calling Jesus our Lord and Savior is wrong, yet the Apostles called Jesus their Lord and Savior.

Could you elaborate?

@@jeffc5474 its not needed.

@@ronaldjenks3474 sure, lordship salvation saved nothing and nobody, and most people in it are the exact opposite of blessed, this form of dispensationalism is from zionism and dallas seminary, and its a false self righteous thing and its given its adherents mental illness concerning the end and a form of angry self righteousness nearing reprobation, similar to what the jews were given. Its all backstopped by a totally false and satanic understanding of hell, which is a man made doctrine inserted into the Bible.

@@swanbitcoin2355 Actually since you made the charge, it is needed. However since you refuse to provide any Biblical evidence to your claim, you have confirmed you are a false witness and no servant of Christ.