Hey! There’s been a mistake. In Q3, I completely overlooked a part of the question. At 03:42, It’s not accurate to 0.1 kg because the readings are 80.2 and 80.1. The true value is 75.2. If it was 75.3 or 75.1 in the options, it would’ve been accurate to 0.1 kg. Sorry for the mistake! Subscribe to the channel! 👆 Face reveal at 10k subs 🤪 Fill this form up for Question Paper Requests! forms.gle/bJC4XoRC7AVT6UZHA
For question 37, why isn't the potential difference the same for the 3 resistor and R instead of it being the same for resistor 9 and 6. My exam is tomorrow so it would be amazing if you can respond soon, thanks!
Love how 'done' you sounded when you said 'gravity doesn't act like this guys, c'mon' while explaining Q.12. I was seriously solving the paper and that part came up so unexpectedly lmao
@@bruh_bie Nooo why tf are all of you(someone else noticed as well) seeing me embarrass the goddamn shit outta myself online on RU-vid??!🥲 On a side note tho, bhaiya onek bhalo kore bujhay it's pog
@@rababhaque2936 yeee agreed Also that accent was so clearly Bangladeshi ahah Love the representation tho, he’s much better than that Pakistani dude who barely explains anything
Hey! You’re right. I completely overlooked that part of the question. At 03:42, It’s not accurate to 0.1 kg because the readings are 80.2 and 80.1. The true value is 75.2. If it was 75.3 or 75.1 in the options, it would’ve been accurate to 0.1 kg. Thanks for pointing this out! Sorry for the mistake.
Hey! The KE is given as 32 kJ , so we need to convert it to SI Units. 32 kJ is 32 x 10^3 J. at the end of the sum we get 1600N, we need to convert that to kN as well. so we get 1.6 kN.
Hey! I actually used 2 methods. If you use the first method, you need to use 60m, since the component of weight down the slope is acting in that direction, and I was finding out the work done in that direction. You can also use 30m as I have shown in the second method. There, I used mgh to find out GPE gained.
Hey, listen. The surface is frictionless yes. But since the two objects are together as one object, they will both receive a share of F. Its not like both of them will get the same value of F. Because we know that F = ma and Y has smaller mass. So a=F/m. If Y also got F, because it has smaller mass, Y would have greater acceleration than X and they would not remain in contact anymore. But in the ques, its mentioned that they remain in contact. How is that possible. X will get a portion of F and Y will also get a portion of F. So both X and Y will receive a force that is less than F numerically. For example, X may have a mass of 3/4m and Y may have a mass of 1/4m. So X receives a Force of 3/4F and Y receives a force of 1/4F. So if we find out acceleration For X , a = 3/4F / 3/4m = F/m For Y, a = 1/4F/ 1/4m = F/m Since the values are the same, they will have same accel, and remain in contact. So, since X is taking away 3/4th of F, 1/4th of will remain, which will be exerted on Y, by X. Hopefully it makes sense now!
Yes, voltage should be divided between both of them. I just used the ratings to find out the resistance first, I didn't assume that both of them get 250. After finding out resistance I actually found out how much voltage each of them get. You can see that at 41:36 . P gets 200 Volts and Q gets 50 Volts. 200+50 = 250.
You're right. It's kind of odd. You won't see this usually. But regardless of the logic make sure you always equate momentum. What we get for KE is not our headache.
