Тёмный

Ask The Theologian | Friday, July 12, 2024 

Randy White
Подписаться 6 тыс.
Просмотров 226
50% 1

See comments for a summary of today's questions.
Submit your Biblical, Theological, and Worldview questions 24/7 at askthetheologi...

Опубликовано:

 

7 сен 2024

Поделиться:

Ссылка:

Скачать:

Готовим ссылку...

Добавить в:

Мой плейлист
Посмотреть позже
Комментарии : 4   
@RandyWhite
@RandyWhite Месяц назад
1. Why do theologians not look into the evidence for the significance of 823,543 words in the King James Bible? - Asked by: Gerard in the Netherlands - Scripture References: Micah 1 - Summary: Theologians might avoid this topic due to the numerous assumptions and potential inaccuracies in word counts across different versions of the Bible. For the claim of 823,543 words to be valid, the exact counts in each chapter, like Micah 1, must match. However, discrepancies in word counts raise doubts about the validity of this claim, making it less robust for theological discourse. 2. Does John 2:18-23 disprove the statement "The Father is not the Son" as depicted in the Shield of the Trinity diagram? - Asked by: Jay in Tennessee - Scripture References: John 2:18-23, Galatians 1:1 - Summary: While John 2:18-23 indicates Jesus saying He will raise Himself from the dead, Galatians 1:1 states that God the Father raised Jesus from the dead. This presents a complex theological puzzle about the relationship between the Father and the Son. The Shield of the Trinity diagram, which asserts the Father is not the Son, remains a simplified representation of a more profound mystery that theologians continue to explore without a complete understanding of the Trinity. 3. What does it mean that Jesus had to learn obedience through suffering as stated in Hebrews 5:8? - Asked by: Anonymous - Scripture References: Hebrews 5:8 - Summary: The Greek term used for "learned" in Hebrews 5:8 suggests an experiential understanding. Jesus, though eternally the Son of God, experienced obedience in a new way through His sufferings. This unique experience in His human incarnation allowed Him to fully submit and obey the Father, demonstrating a practical aspect of obedience He had not experienced before His incarnation. 4. Is J.N. Darby considered the father of dispensationalism, or is there more to his story? - Asked by: Pastor Timothy - Scripture References: None - Summary: J.N. Darby's contributions to dispensationalism are significant, but he might not fully align with contemporary dispensationalist views. The title "father of dispensationalism" can be misleading, as Darby's ideas evolved and differed from today's interpretations. Dispensationalism has developed beyond Darby's original teachings, and his work should be appreciated within its historical context. 5. Could it be said that the King James Version is a Bible based on dispensationalism? - Asked by: Chris from Forney, Texas - Scripture References: None - Summary: The King James Version (KJV) was not specifically created with dispensationalism in mind. The translators aimed for accuracy, beauty, and acceptance by the masses, rather than promoting a particular theological stance. While the KJV supports dispensationalist interpretation due to its precise translation, its creation was not ideologically driven by dispensationalism. 6. Is charity in Colossians 3:14 equivalent to agape, and has its meaning changed over time? - Asked by: Alan in Portland - Scripture References: Colossians 3:14 - Summary: The term "charity" in Colossians 3:14 is derived from the Greek word agape, which denotes a selfless, divine love. Over time, "charity" has come to represent practical expressions of agape within the Christian context. The translators of the King James Version used "charity" to distinguish between the abstract concept of divine love and its tangible, Christian expressions. 7. Does the word "many" in Matthew 26:28 refer specifically to Israel or imply all people? - Asked by: Thomas in Lilliwap, Washington - Scripture References: Matthew 26:28 - Summary: The term "many" in Matthew 26:28 traditionally refers to Israel rather than all people. Biblical usage of "many" often distinguishes a specific group within a broader context. Therefore, interpreting "many" as "all" is misleading, as the term is used deliberately to highlight a subset, which in this case, is Israel.
@RandyWhite
@RandyWhite Месяц назад
Please note: on question #1 I had YLT instead of KJV in my word count. It doesn't change my overall view, but was an error. See Monday, July 15 question #1 for more explanation.
@RNLWW
@RNLWW Месяц назад
You’re exactly right about the SBC Conservative Resurgence. It was a win for Calvinism, not Christianity.
@RandyWhite
@RandyWhite Месяц назад
@@RNLWW sadly.
Далее
What I Love About Protestants
7:39
Просмотров 114 тыс.
Ask The Theologian | Monday, July 15, 2024
1:03:47
Can you LOSE your SALVATION?!
10:05
Просмотров 732 тыс.
Joshua 17 w/Assistant Pastor Glenn Hurst
22:05
Book of Jonah Summary: A Complete Animated Overview
9:01
Course Correcting the GOP's Biggest Ideological Problem
1:22:09
Binghamtown - September 4, 2024
49:45
Просмотров 488
Book of Micah Summary: A Complete Animated Overview
6:39
Session 3 | Branson Conference 2024
51:32
Просмотров 302