Doesn't Jesus use Scripture as the ultimate authority to turn to? Dr David Anders answers this question on Called to Communion Heard on EWTN Monday to Friday 11am Pacific
So basically the good doctor is claiming that the OT is not authoritative. Which means there's no reason to conclude that the NT is authoritative, either. Which means Matt. 16:18-19 is not authoritative (early churchmen didn't agree on what Jesus meant in that passage, either). Which means the church of Rome doesn't have a leg to stand on. Good job, doctor!
