Question: In phil. 2:7 it refers to jesus being in the form of man. How was jesus fully man when he did not have an earthly father? Thanks for your wisdom
Blessings bro. Good question. Here's what the text says, "Phi 2:7 (LHB)- But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men." As Scripture teaches, the incarnation of Christ is a mystery. God, the Son, became a man, human. Scripture doesn't seem to posit that He had to have an earthly father to be "fully man." In fact, were this the case He couldn't be "fully God." He'd just be a glorified human if he had both earthly parents. What Scripture reveals is that He was always God but condescended and took on an additional nature, human, in order that He may save us. As a result, Christ incarnate is "fully God," as that's who He's always been, and "fully man," the additional nature He took on from His mother's side. I hope that helps.
@@ReverendThunder I guess also if he had an earthly father he would have inherited the sin nature as the doctrine of Federal Headship seems to explain. Your answer helps a lot. God bless
In my view, we can’t end religious conflict till we see the purpose of religion, which is to unite human beings with God & with each other. If religion is not doing that, it should be done away with. To fight over doctrine, dogma, creeds, theology is a sign of irreligion, not religion. It’s struggle for power. I could be wrong.
