I think I get it now. It's because the 1st term is equivalent to 1 and the 2nd term also is equal to 1. F1= 1 F2= 1 F3= ? (Presented in first explanation)
I found why! It’s because the sequence for the Fibonacci sequence is “1,1,2,3,5,8,13….” So F1 is 1 because the first number is 1 and F2 is one because in the sequence again the second number is 1. Idk if I make sense but that
Hello sir I am from India(a JEE student) and I have a completely different solution for the general term of Fibonacci series. Reply if you trust me and want to know my solution....
Sir why or what is your explanation by using difference or minus when finding the three terms sir hopefully you'll reply sir so that i can understand that part