This is very Important video for understanding Outer and Inner Sphere Electron Transfer Mechanism. Follow me on Unacademy: unacademy.com/u... #labile #inert #coordination
Sir, your videos are very well explained with basic concepts and I loved it. I was having lots of confusion but after watching your videos my doubts are all cleared now.
D8 configuration is Inert. Due to symmetry and CFSE Value equal to . HS. -2.00 and LS. -2.00. Experience, see Ajai Kumar he had mentioned this energy is required thus becomes inert
I'll try to make atleast 2 videos per week. Taking out time for videos alongwith research work is little difficult. But I'll try to make videos regularly
Why d0, d1 ,d2 are labile as you explained sir while they have vacant eg ?? But according to CFT they should be inert in nature as you said sir in this video !! Kindly explain plz sir
Sir it is really helping you have generated concept for me regarding inert and lebile chemistry ... sir while reading through book i find d7 d9 are inert for low spin complex.
14:47 u said if electrons are in eg then they are labile. 15:02 But in case of d1, d2, d3 there is no electron in eg still they are labile. Didn't explained well. Give the reason. Please explain it .
I think because there is empty place in the d orbital so a ligand can make associative reaction and put its lone pair in any place from the empty places i think it is according to valence bond theory
Sir if it is a high spin complex if it is in the influence of weak ligands then pairing should take place in t2g orbitals first why eg orbitals are get paired before t2g in octahedral complexes in CFT
In outer orbital complexes at 3d orbital, only 4 electrons are filled one orbital vacant why ?? 6 chlorine electrons not filled by that vacant 3d orbital.. can u explain
Kinetic stability is how fast reaction proceeds if fast then kinetically unstable if slow then kinetically stable it give Idea about activation energy less activation energy means complex is kinetically unstable and.....
@@dimbeswarbhumij8026 the eg set arises from interaction with the ligand donor orbitals; this set corresponds to a σ antibonding level.since when electrons goes in antibonding the bonding of ligand with metal is weak therefore the complex will be labile and easily undergoes substitution. I hope it cleared ur doubt.🤗
Sir in sp3d2 hybridised complex dz2 orbital is vacant and until it is fully filled we can't prefer further orbitals. I have this confusion, kindly me help me out with this🙏🙏. Thankyou 🙏
one doubt in that, we find that, this complexes are high spin or low spin get confused... So its easy way to find that strong field ligands are low spin complex and weak field ligands are high spin complexes.....These are said by my faculty its correct or not
Because hybridisation main outer d orbitals involved hai therefore that only taking part in bonding thus electrons are filled in them leaving inner 3d orbital vacant. I hope it helps..
in case of [cr(CN)6]-3 complex CN is strong ligand so the electrons are filled against hunds rule but you filled sigle electrons in 3dxy',3dyz,3dzx, why
the species which is less stable has higher eneregy than the species which are more stable, this is common trend in Chemistry which is followed by all intermediates, complexes and bonds, so a weak bond will be less stable and thus it will have higher energy.
