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Why Momentum in Quantum Physics is Complex 

Parth G
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In classical physics, we are used to calculating an object's momentum by multiplying its mass by its velocity. But how do we deal with momentum in Quantum Mechanics, where we commonly deal with wave functions?
A wave function is a mathematical function that contains all the information we can know about any system we're studying. For example, if our system is a single electron, the wave function can be used to calculate the probability of finding the electron at different positions in space, or with different values of momentum.
It's only when we make a measurement on the particle, that we cause a collapse in the wave function, and thus know a certain value for the particle's momentum. So a question we can ask is, how do we mathematically deal with the idea of making a measurement in quantum mechanics?
Since the system is described by the wave function, we apply a "measurement operator" to the wave function, which is the real-life equivalent of making a measurement. Mathematically, this is like applying a matrix to a vector (where the matrix is the operator, and the vector is the wave function). On the right hand side of the equation, we get the "eigenvalue", which is the actual measured value that we find as a result of our experiment. This equation is described as the eigenvalue equation.
But what does the momentum operator, that we use in the eigenvalue equation, actually look like? Does it look similar to mass x velocity, which is what momentum looks like in classical physics? The answer is no - the momentum operator is more complex, with the imaginary number, reduced Planck constant, and a partial derivative with respect to x as part of the expression.
The reason for this, is that the operator is derived by considering a "building block" wave function (which is sinusoidal). This can be written in terms of the exponential function, and the position and momentum of the particle. This building block function can also be used to break down almost any other function we deal with. When we differentiate this building block wave function, we find that the result is equal to the momentum, p, of the particle, multiplied by the original wave function and some other factors. Thus if we rearrange this, we find the momentum operator expression.
It's worth noting though that the logic behind momentum is still the same - the conservation of momentum still applies, and the idea is still that it is the mass of the object multiplied by its velocity.
More information about the exponential function with the imaginary number in the exponent: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler%2...
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Timestamps:
0:00 - Classical Momentum (p = mv) and Wave Functions
2:36 - Mathematically Encoding Momentum in Quantum Mechanics
3:44 - What Does the Momentum Measurement Operator Look Like, and Where Does it Come From?
5:33 - Breaking Down Complex Wave Functions into Simple Building Blocks
6:17 - Deriving the Momentum Operator by Differentiating the Wave Function Building Block

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1 авг 2024

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Комментарии : 235   
@ParthGChannel
@ParthGChannel 2 года назад
Hey thanks everyone for your support as always! Check out my quantum mechanics playlist here for more videos: ru-vid.com/group/PLOlz9q28K2e4Yn2ZqbYI__dYqw5nQ9DST Also, as always, let me know what other physics topics you'd like me to cover in future videos :)
@WildGamez
@WildGamez 2 года назад
Please explain how the operator works i.e how it generates useful values and what they mean. Please explain the implications of the collapse of the wavefunction. Love ur content!! Also was wondering how entropy and wavefunction are related on a quantum level. If there are many possible configurations of probabilities then the entropy () in the future before measurement is high. But after measurement, does the collapse of the wavefunction cause entropy to become lower? Does this not violate 2nd law of thermodynamics in some special way...just like how the speed of light is the fastest thing only IN space but there are theoretical exeptions. Please clarify. Thanks for the content 😀.
@pritamroy3766
@pritamroy3766 2 года назад
Hi parth , after watching your video series, I have subtle lots of doubts, related to some old video topics as well, how could I ask all the questions please let me know, I really want to clear those doubts,
@voidisyinyangvoidisyinyang885
how about a noncommutative explanation from Heisenberg? thanks
@AndrewDotsonvideos
@AndrewDotsonvideos 2 года назад
Maybe this is what you were saving for a future video, but the operator being complex (specifically Hermitian) is required so that its eigenvalues are guaranteed to be real. So even though the operator is complex, what's measured in experiment is always real:) Complex "observables" confused me so much in undergrad until that connection was made lol. Nice job as always!
@aarushkumar168
@aarushkumar168 2 года назад
Oh hey Andrew :)
@bongohindu5496
@bongohindu5496 2 года назад
Hermitians have one one more advantage that they can be applied to any of the Dirac brackets for deriving expectation values as they have real eigenvalues.
@ParthGChannel
@ParthGChannel 2 года назад
Dude thanks for tagging this on, super useful!!
@varunv2584
@varunv2584 2 года назад
Nice to find you here, papa Andrew
@AceOfPeter
@AceOfPeter 2 года назад
Maybe another detail to is mention that it's not the operator itself that has a complex form, but its representation in position space. In momentum space, for example, it's the position operator that takes a complex form. I think the more fundamental concept is the commutation relations between the two operators, since they are independent of the representation being used.
@qubex
@qubex 2 года назад
I found your overview to be thorough and it was very thoughtfully presented. I do appreciate when explainers take time to “unpack the math° and strip away the sometimes abstruse notations to show “what’s really going on” at the level that one could then sit down and actually perform the calculation with Calculus II level knowledge. Thank-you.
@carlthorellstein53
@carlthorellstein53 2 года назад
Still can't believe his channel isn't called Parth to Knowledge...
@ParthGChannel
@ParthGChannel 2 года назад
I missed a trick!
@Robinson8491
@Robinson8491 2 года назад
Fart to knowledge
@abdulllllahhh
@abdulllllahhh 2 года назад
You are a talented teacher, you speak so elegantly and manage to make this stuff sound so simple. You just earned yourself a subscriber and I will definitely be recommending you to my friends!
@theverynoob786
@theverynoob786 2 года назад
I've watched a lot of quantum physics related content. I've been engaged in quantum physics courses. I had never seen an explanation that was so easy to follow but still bringing all the info I needed to not feel like something was missing.
@MsAlarman
@MsAlarman 2 года назад
Very clear explanation
@ugoamaldi8056
@ugoamaldi8056 2 года назад
Sir, this is a first-class educational video and you explain with straight and precise language extremely difficult concepts. Thank you!
@mann5861
@mann5861 2 года назад
also at 8:20 there is a small mistake, you have written p = -ihd/dt, the derivative is supposed to be wrt x!
@ParthGChannel
@ParthGChannel 2 года назад
Oops! Great spot :)
@laszlokorosi9012
@laszlokorosi9012 2 года назад
Small mistake?! You are too generous :). Quantum momentum operator being a spatial derivative, versus the classical momentum as a time derivative - underlines the huge difference between classical and quantum reality and deserves attention.
@alijoueizadeh2896
@alijoueizadeh2896 8 месяцев назад
Thank you for your time and effort.
@richardsayfer3979
@richardsayfer3979 2 года назад
Great video! You explain physics so well! It would be nice if you made a video about the higgs mechanism
@skg8778
@skg8778 2 года назад
Thank you! I'm studying at the university now and finaly got it! 🙌
@mistersilly9012
@mistersilly9012 2 года назад
this is the clear explanation i've been waiting for. well, one of them. i've seen lots of descriptions of squaring the wave function to get a probability, but not a concrete connection between the probability of a thing and the wave function of a thing. i'm still digesting this, but when you introduced the system & wavefunction, i'd have liked to see a few examples of different systems before you focused on a particle's momentum, so i had a better picture of psi's general role in describing a system's evolution ... psi describes this variable in this system when these variables are held constant. very very good though i always wondered why they switched notation for partial derivatives. if you have extra independant variables, dy/dx could only make sense if you treat the other variables as constant ... you're specifically talking about sliding infinitessimally in the x direction only, whether you have one or many iv's
@georgerevell5643
@georgerevell5643 Год назад
wow thats great thanks! Its amazing how easy QM can be sometimes, abstract and complex but not necessarily too complicated.
@palacinka7523
@palacinka7523 2 года назад
So good! I wish you would be giving lectures at my Uni
@Lucky10279
@Lucky10279 2 года назад
6:17 This is giving me flashbacks to Fourier series problems in my signals and systems class last year. Fourier series (which are how we write complicated wave functions as sums of simpler wave functions) are awesome as a concept and super useful, but computing them by hand is a *ginormous* pain in the butt. Thanks heavens for Matlab and wolfram alpha.
@user-mc2rd9ho5d
@user-mc2rd9ho5d Год назад
You are the best one who can describe anything to anyone
@ivpiter-2759
@ivpiter-2759 2 года назад
Momentum in quantum mechanics is, like many other stuff in physics, not demostrated formally, instead is calculated using an example like the solution of the wave function. This is what I like the most about your video.
@johncgibson4720
@johncgibson4720 3 месяца назад
I was a EE student 20 years ago. The imaginary part i is most certainly the phase parameter of the particle or device. Capacitors and inductors also have the i component as their parameter when you want to calculate the circuit's behavior in a phasor diagram.
@lepidoptera9337
@lepidoptera9337 2 месяца назад
There are no particles in nature. There are only quanta of energy. The linearity of the theory comes from the physical independence of members of the quantum mechanical ensemble. The scalar product form and the necessity for rotations in a unitary framework arise out of Kolmogorov and the complex representation is just one of several possible (there is a quaternion version of quantum mechanics if you are interested). That the complex numbers show up can also be motivated with temporal and spatial homogeneity due to Lie-group symmetries. It's the same reason why they show up in the phasor diagram. At the end of the day this is all geometry.
@juanperez-ventana5621
@juanperez-ventana5621 2 года назад
This is really good, thank you
@harrypathak3935
@harrypathak3935 Год назад
my god it is so crystal clear now thank you so much bhaiya.... thats like a champ teacher!!!!!!! thankyou so much again
@zray2937
@zray2937 2 года назад
In the Heisenberg picture, the momentum is the mass times the velocity operator (time derivative of the position operator).
@MasterHigure
@MasterHigure 2 года назад
2:00 It is, as I remember it, theoretically impossible to have totally precise measurements of observables that have a continuum of possible outcomes, like position usually does. So even after measuring the particle, we only get a somewhat certain result back, and the wave function collapses to a more localized, but not single-positioned wave function.
@Chewbacca0702
@Chewbacca0702 2 года назад
Hi Parth, excellent video. As I watched your video, I thought about how particle accelerators will yield the positions of particles after collisions, and how these are used to determine their masses. My challenge and request is to link the concepts in this video, particularly the landscape of eigenvalues of the wave function, to the practical outputs of such accelerators. Thank you for your videos.
@ankittongawar7439
@ankittongawar7439 2 года назад
Well explained
@AJ-dr6yb
@AJ-dr6yb 2 года назад
Hey cool explanation in simplest form...
@jorgefontenlagonzalez8412
@jorgefontenlagonzalez8412 2 года назад
Fantastic video (as always)! One question: is the quantic momentum measured in Kg x m/s? If so, does this formulation still apply in the case of particles without mass? 🤔
@jacek9989
@jacek9989 2 года назад
So drilling the topic a little bit further the question would be why there is a p in wave function in such a form but I guess this is a big topic maybe for another video. Thanks for the great explanation, you are doing amazing job.
@rsbenari
@rsbenari 8 месяцев назад
Very nicely done. Thanks. It would be helpful to get your brief take on why and how the plane wave works -- aside from the mathematical convenience of its partials fitting the needs of the Schrödinger Equation (as you hint at here). Thanks again. As in your other vids, your explanation here is crystal.
@lepidoptera9337
@lepidoptera9337 3 месяца назад
It works because the physical vacuum has translation symmetry. The plane wave is basically just the explicit solution of the Lie-group of translations. The spherical harmonic functions are the solutions to the rotations. You are being introduced to quantum mechanics in the wrong order. Instead of being shown the differential equation, it would be much better if we would tell you how to work with continuous symmetry groups, instead, because those are universal for all equations that have these symmetries. The only change we get from e.g. the hydrogen functions, is the radial part of the solution. Why? Because the 1/r potential doesn't violate the rotational symmetry, hence it can be factored out right away. We never ever have to think about it... assuming we already understand how symmetries, equations and solutions of equations come together.
@Waterfront975
@Waterfront975 3 месяца назад
You can say I suppose that In QM momentum is a term in the exponent, to get the momentum out of the exponent you have to take the differential with respect to distance and multiply with i*hbar to remove unwanted factors. The wave function will not change as it is an exponential, therefore the wave function is on both sides of the equation.
@lepidoptera9337
@lepidoptera9337 3 месяца назад
Yes, and the reason why that is so is because of the translation symmetry of spacetime. At the end of the day the "correct" equations (Dirac, not Schroedinger) are representations of the Poincare group. The generators here are the translations and rotations and the general group elements can be written as a complex exponential. If we would teach trigonometric functions like it's the 21st century instead of the 3rd century BC (Euclid), then all of this would be a totally trivial matter even for the average high school student.
@Emily-fm7pt
@Emily-fm7pt 2 года назад
I've seen a video or two on it, but it'd be cool if you did a series on the mathematics of perturbation theory
@jeetubais5507
@jeetubais5507 Год назад
Wow 😍😍 love you sir
@jeff.guillaume
@jeff.guillaume 2 года назад
What do you think about the definition of momentum in bohmian mechanics ?
@chevasithompa8294
@chevasithompa8294 2 года назад
Very good!👍
@WildGamez
@WildGamez 2 года назад
Wonderful
@danielbelsky8836
@danielbelsky8836 2 года назад
Great video!! Have just taken a course on modern physics and this expended my knowlage even further. I would really like to understand though, why the probability function is the square of the wave function? (Why square? Why not some other manipulation on the wave function...). Thanks!
@ternernator256
@ternernator256 2 года назад
As far as i understand it the probality is defined as |ψ|^2 because you need it to be a real number (0\leq x \leq 1) and multiplying a complex number with its complex conjugate is pretty much the easiest way to manipulate a complex number so that the result is garanteed to be a real number.
@nUrnxvmhTEuU
@nUrnxvmhTEuU 2 года назад
For me, it took the path integral formulation to finally understand why the wavefunction is complex and probability is its modulus squared. If you shoot a photon at a wall with two slits, the photon will delocalize, take several paths, and along each path it will accumulate some phase shift - in much the same way that a classical electromagnetic wave changes phase as it travels. In fact, for high-intensity light source, the experiment can be well described with classical EM. There, the intensity can be computed by taking the modulus squared of the complex amplitude of the wave. If you then decrease the intensity to the point of emitting a single photon at a time, the intensity becomes the probability of detection. And the complex amplitude (phasor) becomes the wavefunction.
@srenladegaardkristensen1076
@srenladegaardkristensen1076 2 года назад
6:51 Teacher: Are you familiar with differentiation? Students: No. Teacher: Well, it’s a mathematical process by which you find the gradient. Students: What’s a gradient? Teacher: Well, it’s what you get by differentiation…
@davidwright8432
@davidwright8432 2 года назад
Are you by any chance channeling Søren Kierkegaard? There's a similarity of ironic humor!
@MasterBunnyFu
@MasterBunnyFu 2 года назад
This was particularly frustrating to me because there's a much better high-level description of derivatives that seems like it would give a much more intuitive idea of why the momentum operator involves taking a derivative. Derivatives tell you about how a function changes, and partial derivatives tell you about how a particular component of the function changes. Thus, by taking the partial derivative of the wave function with respect to position, you're finding out how the position component changes, i.e. what its momentum is.
@alphalunamare
@alphalunamare 2 года назад
5:04 Such a simple explanation! :-) I like it.
@nintendoswitchfan4953
@nintendoswitchfan4953 2 года назад
PLEASE PLEASE make a video on the DIRAC EQUATION
@eyadalsaleh6849
@eyadalsaleh6849 2 года назад
wonderful
@captainbass5730
@captainbass5730 2 года назад
Do you have a video/video recommendation, about how to practically measure a quantum state and how to interpret the result with the eigenequation. You mentioned such a video at 08:07. Thank you in advice.
@pranitabaruah266
@pranitabaruah266 2 года назад
Parth, I love you!
@Handelsbilanzdefizit
@Handelsbilanzdefizit 2 года назад
In my opinion, all particles obey this equation: c² = Ψ^i* g_ij Ψ^j Where Ψ^r is the amplitude, that in time dt, a particle jumps from point 'A' to neighborpoint A+dr. And g_ij is metrictensor. For lightbending in gravity, pathintegral would help. Just my intuition.
@laurendoe168
@laurendoe168 2 года назад
I am looking in the description block for resources about partial differentiation - and see none.
@mauroviscardi9687
@mauroviscardi9687 11 месяцев назад
Great lesson, Parth G. Just a comment: last formula is really correct (derivative over X, not over time)? Thank you for all you excellent support.
@bentoomey15
@bentoomey15 2 года назад
Why is there a unique choice of eigenvalue lambda for the operator? Or is lambda some kind of probabilistic object (e.g. we get any particular lambda based on some probability measure supported on spectrum of the momentum operator)?
@vishnu439
@vishnu439 2 года назад
How did you get the equation at 7:25
@Brassard1985
@Brassard1985 2 года назад
I don’t know if you said this, but it depends on the space. If you are in momentum space, then the momentum operator is just momentum itself. Then, the position operator is the partial derivative of the wave function w.r.t momentum, multiplied by the constant -i*hbar. The operations are essentially the opposite of what is done in position space.
@JasonHise64
@JasonHise64 2 года назад
Definitely want to hear more about how measuring the wave function concretely changes the wave function.
@Dinnye01
@Dinnye01 2 года назад
It's easy, really. Measuring a quantum system means giving it energy, which changes it. If you hit an electron even with a photon, you impart energy. You could use a low energy photon with longer wavelength and the measurement is more "blurry". Or use a high energy photon (shorter wavelength) but then you are imparting energy to the system. You simply cannot measure a quantum system without interfering with it = hence the change.
@Dinnye01
@Dinnye01 2 года назад
That said, I'm interested in the math side of it too, so good topic idea!
@user-sl6gn1ss8p
@user-sl6gn1ss8p 2 года назад
@@Dinnye01 Sure, giving energy to a system can change it and we usually work with small systems in quantum mechanics, but that's also true of classical systems and neither the wave function collapse nor the uncertainty principles (an "intrinsic blurriness) depend on that - I interpreted the question to be more along the lines of "how/why does the wave function collapse happen" (to which the answer is idk : p )
@jarredgrant1
@jarredgrant1 2 года назад
@@user-sl6gn1ss8p No, FullMetal's answer is correct and complete. You need at least one photon to observe something, but that one photon changes the system. If you're asking why measuring something about a bowling ball doesn't cause it to start rolling because of the energy transfer from the photons then you're not ready for quantum mechanics.
@jarredgrant1
@jarredgrant1 2 года назад
@@user-sl6gn1ss8p To answer your question the wave function collapses because the wave function represents the probabilities associated to the particle. When you know something for sure (because you measured it) it is not a wave of probabilities anymore, it is a definite result. Like flipping a coin, in the air the result is unknown but as soon as I snatch it to see heads or tails, it is definitely one of the other. That's why the wave function collapses to a specific value.
@vtrandal
@vtrandal 3 месяца назад
I want to see a video on the Parth Integral formulation of quantum mechanics.
@ashutosh7758
@ashutosh7758 2 года назад
you deserve a Like
@starstuff11
@starstuff11 Год назад
8:28 should it be del x instead of del t?
@emmynoether5878
@emmynoether5878 2 года назад
Can you help us visualise the equation in the nest videp
@itzdark9670
@itzdark9670 2 года назад
Brother any video on thermodynamics??
@harshitaharshita6543
@harshitaharshita6543 2 года назад
Nice
@murongwangqing
@murongwangqing 2 года назад
7:56 and 8:20 Sorry, I am confused. Partial derivative with respect to t or x?
@g137hampton
@g137hampton 2 года назад
Awesome video. One question though, at 6:45 you mention resources below to get more info on partial differentiation and i don't see it in the notes.
@chillphil967
@chillphil967 2 года назад
Khan academy legit starting point 🤔
@zakirreshi6737
@zakirreshi6737 2 года назад
4:53 you can't show e^ix like that in figure...it is misleading... instead you should write it as cosx and should mention it is combination of e^ix and e^-ix.
@chillphil967
@chillphil967 2 года назад
I was scratching my head too lol 🤔 good catch 😇
@5ty717
@5ty717 Год назад
Marvelous…
@account1307
@account1307 2 года назад
When you apply an operator to an eigenstate, you end up multiplying the eigenstate by the eigenvalue, this is not the same as what happens when you make a measurement: when you make a measurement the general state collapses randomly to an eigenstate with a probability given by |c|^2 where c is the coefficient of that eigenstate in the original state - applying an operator and making a measurement are not the same thing :) Operators give us a spectrum of possible eigenvalues for any given observable, and they also provide us with a means of calculating an expectation value for any given observable
@schmetterling4477
@schmetterling4477 2 года назад
The state doesn't collapse. The individual quantum system doesn't have a state. It has energy, momentum and angular momentum and when you are doing a measurement, then you are taking a certain amount of energy, momentum and angular momentum out of the system. The state thing tracks the properties of the quantum mechanical ensemble and allows you to calculate the probability distributions for how much energy, momentum and angular momentum you take out of the system.
@shaungovender7805
@shaungovender7805 2 года назад
Why is the momentum operator only dependent on the x-axis of position? Is there a specific reason why the y and z axis are ignored?
@ParthGChannel
@ParthGChannel 2 года назад
We are just ignoring it here for simplicity - but in reality, there is a y and z dependency as well, in the same way as x is seen here!
@davidwright8432
@davidwright8432 2 года назад
In the 'actual world' of course all dimensions are involved. To make life simpler while learning, we can restrict attention to one of the space dimensions without losing any physics, but gaining explanatory clarity. Later on, generalize to - as many dimensions as you like! But the additional complication will come from the geometry, not the physics. You can explain all the physics in terms of the wave function's behavior in (or along) a single dimension.
@shaungovender7805
@shaungovender7805 2 года назад
@@ParthGChannel would I be correct in saying that the momentum operator could then be represented in vector form using the up-side-down triangle? (I'm not sure if it is div, grad or curl)... Or would that be a classical way of thinking about it
@dhritimanroyghatak2408
@dhritimanroyghatak2408 2 года назад
@@shaungovender7805 indeed you would be correct to do so. so in general the momentum operator in 3D would be -i h grad (wavefunction).
@richardsrichards2984
@richardsrichards2984 2 года назад
Is there a way to derieve Q.M operators mathematically or is it just take it as you find it.
@TheDummbob
@TheDummbob 2 года назад
In a sense QM is an axiomatic theory justified by "it works if we do it that way" And part of the axioms is to say that physical systems are described by wavefunctions, and physical observables like charge and number of particles, energy etc. are defined to be represented by operators acting on these wavefunctions So yes, you are basically right. A bit disappointing, but this is also the magic-mystery of physics yet to be solved imo :D
@Josdamale
@Josdamale 2 года назад
Perhaps it would help in the last step just to explain that 1/i = - i.
@hmyasirr
@hmyasirr 2 года назад
Interesting
@GaryFerrao
@GaryFerrao 2 года назад
oh this is so insightful, though indirectly. i was always taught and read in books that the wave function can be expressed as A×exp(i×(kx + ωt)). _No one_ showed it to me this way as exp(i÷h×(px + Et)). now i understand _why_ the momentum operator is such. 🤦
@nintendoswitchfan4953
@nintendoswitchfan4953 2 года назад
Plz make dirac equation video
@albertkennis
@albertkennis 2 года назад
Does the quantum form converge or match the classical form in some limit?
@jarredgrant1
@jarredgrant1 2 года назад
quantum matches classical in the limit that h-bar goes to 0.
@jarredgrant1
@jarredgrant1 2 года назад
This should make sense because if h-bar goes to 0 then there is no spacing between energy levels anymore and they are continuous, which is what they appear to be to us on the macro scale.
@xjuhox
@xjuhox 2 года назад
Yes. If h-bar goes to zero, then the uncertainty principle does not prevent both position and momentum distributions to be sharply peaked, i.e. classical.
@muskyoxes
@muskyoxes 2 года назад
It's always just taken as a given that we use some weird square root of probability. Not probability itself, which would make some sense. It'd be nice if there was any sort of rationale or intuition behind it.
@rustycobalt5072
@rustycobalt5072 2 года назад
Can you please explain why the wave function squared gives "Probability"?
@dhritimanroyghatak2408
@dhritimanroyghatak2408 2 года назад
well it is defined to give the probability that's why it gives the "Probability". Now that's a silly answer I know let me further explain it a bit. So squaring the wavefunction turns out to satisfy all the axioms for what a function needs to be in order for it to be a "Probability distribution" and it also turned out that making The square of the wavefunction to be the probability distribution allows the machinery of QM very mathematically general. Physicist Max Born figured out this nature of the square of the wavefunction in mathematical terms and hence found it sufficient enough to postulate this into quantum mechanics. Later mathematician Von Neuman while generalizing the mathematical background of quantum mechanics via introducing Hilbert Spaces also showed how choosing the square of the Wavefunction makes sense in a general mathematical sense. For more details look at L^{2} functions in Hilbert space.
@xjuhox
@xjuhox 2 года назад
It comes from wave intensity.
@philip8498
@philip8498 2 года назад
@@dhritimanroyghatak2408 so the answer is basically: because if we do it that way for no particular reason at all it turns out to work remarkably well?
@dhritimanroyghatak2408
@dhritimanroyghatak2408 2 года назад
@@philip8498 well I did mention some of the reasons altho they were mostly mathematical does not disregard their capacity to model physical reality. Maybe I did a poor job let me try again. 1) So fist of all for a function to be a probability distribution it must fulfill the various properties of a probability distribution. All everyday probability distribution may they be in the domain of economics to biology to generalized statistics obey and follow those properties. It turned out that square of wavefunction also follows these properties hence it makes sense to define it so. 2) Now there's more. It turned out once u do define it to be the probability density u end up with an algorithm to measure and assign probabilities to various physical quantities within QM such as position, momentum, intensity etc which can be experimentally measured by repetitive measurements and they matched the theoretically calculated value. So defining the square of the wavefunction as a probability distribution not just only satisfies all the mathematical properties of a probability distribution but also gives strong experimental validation. 3) Also in any wavemechanics weather it be sound, water, EM, anything the square of the amplitude has always has its importance as being proportional to the intensity. Hence giving square of the amplitude in QM(which is a wave mechanics) a purpose made it complete and general with respect to wave mechanics. All these r very strong reasons to postulate the statistical interpretation in QM and that is what the founding fathers of QM aptly did.
@rustycobalt5072
@rustycobalt5072 2 года назад
@@dhritimanroyghatak2408 First off, you didn't tackle at all the Why just the How. Which does not answer my question I am asking why does squaring the wave function, a mathematical representation of fundamental units of nature, give the probability of that units location. If I squared the function that represents you would I get your approximate location? Makes no sense at all What you have described is more along the lines of "its true because it was an accident that we defined to be true" and when we force it to be true, that is the only time/method that gives the measurements similar enough to force that model to be "true". Self fulfilling prophecy much? I'm siding with @Philip on this Seems more like a con artist a long time ago tried to convince someone of something rather than a method of explanation
@Robinson8491
@Robinson8491 2 года назад
Relationship between the real Simple Harmonic Oscillator and the QFT (Dirac) Oscillator/ladder operator in the complex plane, and the extension of that into the hyperplane
@eee7259
@eee7259 2 года назад
What you show in the eigenvalue equation isn't a wavefunction. |psi> is just a state, the wavefunction is given by the projection of |psi> onto real space: psi(x)=
@richardjoseph1966
@richardjoseph1966 10 месяцев назад
Then, similar to the momentum operator we should be able to construct energy operator as well. But the doesn't give us the hamiltonian . Why ?
@COTU9
@COTU9 2 года назад
How accurate can we measure the speed of light? If a pair of entangled photons are aimed through a detector, do they always get to the detector at the proper speed of light for the distance traveled? If the wave form gives a probability, then they should many of the times not collapse at the same time at the detector or get detected at the same time yes? Can someone reference the experiment where this has been tested or has that not been an experiment performed?
@itsalongday
@itsalongday 2 года назад
The waveform gives a probability for the momentum, not for the velocity. A photon's momentum is independent of the velocity (c) and only dependent on its wavelength.
@Errenium
@Errenium 2 года назад
part of the trouble comes from the fact that a quantum object's speed is not well defined. c as the speed of light is a notion from classical relativity, and so it has been measured with classical methods. subsequently, c has been given a defined value and does not truly refer to "the" speed of light, but rather as a constant pertaining to the geometry of spacetime, which is still important as you can tell from the fact that we do not observe macroscopic objects travelling at superluminal speeds.
@COTU9
@COTU9 2 года назад
@@itsalongday Just to clarify, the question is aimed at referencing the difference traveled to the detector should always be the speed of light. But in wave form the time they are detected should be different as the probability implies when they are detected one should be detected before the other which would mean one photon is not traveling at the speed of light.
@COTU9
@COTU9 2 года назад
@@Errenium yes c is the speed of causality, but in this reference, when in the same medium, 2 entangle pairs of photons should hit at the same time, but probability means they should not. I guess in my OP, the speed of light doesn't need to be measured, just ensured that both entangle pairs are moving through the same medium as the actual speed doesn't matter but that their distance does.
@ternernator256
@ternernator256 2 года назад
That question has been bothering me for a good year. But now i feel kinda stupid since the explanation is that easy
@mann5861
@mann5861 2 года назад
could you make a videos motivating the Schrodinger equation(something just like this one motivating the momentum operator) also I think videos like this are very helpful to someone who is just starting out quantum and is wondering where the equations are "derived" from:)
@jarredgrant1
@jarredgrant1 2 года назад
To derive Schrodinger's equation just use energy conservation. KE + PE = total E. It is just an energy conservation equation. You just have to use momentum operator and Energy operator to talk about it correctly. Instead of 1/2mv^2 + V = E you write the KE term as the momentum operator squared over 2 times the mass, and then E=i h-bar d(phi)/dt. Work that out and you will see Schrodingers equation.
@mann5861
@mann5861 2 года назад
@@jarredgrant1 yea I understand this but what i really meant was deriving the time dependent schrödinger equation which basically comes down to showing H=ihd/dt
@jarredgrant1
@jarredgrant1 2 года назад
@@mann5861 You are already looking at the time dependent schrodinger equation. Do you mean H as in the Hamiltonian? I don't understand what you are trying to say. Energy = ih-bar d(phi)/dt, not H. H is the hamiltonian operator which is a very different thing
@mann5861
@mann5861 2 года назад
@@jarredgrant1 the Hamiltonian operator appears in the schrödinger eqn H|Ψ> = ihd|Ψ>/dt
@jarredgrant1
@jarredgrant1 2 года назад
@@mann5861 Okay but H is not equal to that, H acting on the wave function is equal to that. There is a very big difference. If you want to know more you need to take some time and learn about Hamiltonian mechanics and action integrals. Otherwise, it won't make sense anyways. Along the way, you will learn the simple reason why the hamiltonian acting on the wave equation is equal to ih-bar d(phi)/dt. It is very simple but it requires knowledge of Hamiltonian mechanics to make any sense of it.
@johndennis5233
@johndennis5233 7 дней назад
Maybe I'm wrong, but I'm also confused about the eigenvalue equation (from 3 minutes) you say "we apply an operator to our wave function..." .But it appears to me that the equation shown multiplies a vector - a ket (not a wavefunction) by a Hermitian matrix (not an operator). The result is the same but the method isn't.
@rmv9194
@rmv9194 2 года назад
In the last image you put the derivative to t, not x.
@kashfuleman6441
@kashfuleman6441 Год назад
I really love the vedios but I need the math aspect ...please include the math ...
@farpurple
@farpurple Месяц назад
are particles are states of spacetime and other fields or they are actually particles in spacetime? So particles? uh hate it..
@bongohindu5496
@bongohindu5496 2 года назад
Also, I have one more doubt the function you are showing here is only valid for a free particle, otherwise for a bound particle, the wave function is always normalizable. Also, for a free particle, time evolution of the wave function involves repeated Fourier transforms according to Plancherel's theorem.
@xjuhox
@xjuhox 2 года назад
One e^(-ip/h) corresponds to a one possible "direction" in the momentum space. If you add up all the possibilities, then you will have a physical wave that is also normalizable.
@andreasaste359
@andreasaste359 2 года назад
Plane waves are not eigenstates of the momentum operator, since they are not normalizable, i.e. they are no admissible physical states. Hermiticity is not a consequence of real values obtained by measurements, since you are free to multiply your measured values with i where i²=-1 and call them imaginary; it is a consequence of the orthogonality of states obtained by the reduction of states during a measurement. The wave function does not give the probability of finding a particle somewhere; this concept is no longer valid in relativistic quantum mechanics.
@philipoakley5498
@philipoakley5498 2 года назад
-i.h = h/i; just noting how the minus sign appeared. Also noting that for a compactly supported wave function, you need to sum an infinite number of the 'sine waves' which then leads folks into thinking that the wave function had infinite extent (because each 'sine wave' does), and forgetting the wave-particle duality aspect that such 'particles' are localised, rather than being a point. Just as any real wave function isn't infinite. Finally, the probability vs measurement, can be compared to a shuffled card deck. You know the probabilities for any hand, but until it is dealt, you won't know the hand you're given!
@paulthompson9668
@paulthompson9668 2 года назад
In what way does multiplying by -i rotate the wave function by 270 degrees on the complex plane?
@bentoomey15
@bentoomey15 2 года назад
Every point z = x+iy in the complex plane becomes -i*z = y - ix, using i^2=-1. If you picture that as coordinates (x,y), it's a 270 degree rotation about the origin, to (y,-x).
@paulthompson9668
@paulthompson9668 2 года назад
@@bentoomey15 Thanks, but I meant, does the wave function then look kind of like a sinusoidal wave rotated 270 degrees, in effect looking like the graph of x = sin y?
@bentoomey15
@bentoomey15 2 года назад
@@paulthompson9668 Ah, sorry. Yes, you are right, that's what happens. To be a little extra, the wavefunction actually "fills" the entire complex plane, and the sine wave shown is just a slice of what the given wavefunction looks like along the real axis. That whole function gets rotated, and the slice that looks like sine is now on the imaginary axis. The whole thing is really happening in 4 real dimensions (because the wavefunction outputs complex numbers), so the best we can do is simplified visualizations when things are real-valued.
@paulthompson9668
@paulthompson9668 2 года назад
@@bentoomey15 Arrgh, that was the *simplified* visualization?
@DavidAspden
@DavidAspden 2 года назад
A triumph of time management!
@yashdadhwal3034
@yashdadhwal3034 2 года назад
Instead of using e raise to power i as wave function can't we use sin or cos i mean in that way we don't have to deal with i in equation maybe.
@nisargbhavsar25
@nisargbhavsar25 2 года назад
It is actually easier to represent waves in complex form because it's derivatives can be written in its own form easier than for sin and cos.
@yashdadhwal3034
@yashdadhwal3034 2 года назад
@@nisargbhavsar25 yeah but due to that i appears in equation
@nisargbhavsar25
@nisargbhavsar25 2 года назад
@@yashdadhwal3034 But what's the problem with imaginary numbers? Imaginary numbers are actual numbers which we need to use to understand the reality of the universe we live in. The name is a misnomer, they are not imaginary but real. First we hesitated about negative numbers now about imaginary numbers.
@yashdadhwal3034
@yashdadhwal3034 2 года назад
@@nisargbhavsar25 the thing is it would really be interesting to see equation of quantum mechanics if one derive them from a wave function which is combination of sine and cos rather including e raise to power i
@yashdadhwal3034
@yashdadhwal3034 2 года назад
@@nisargbhavsar25 I always try to figure out why imaginary numbers appear in quantum mechanics the real meaning but I came to find out it is just schrodinger took a plane wave solution of wave function and derive everything from it which I really doesn't like I mean it's like a postulate you can't question in a theory because all assumptions are made over it
@aidenwinter1117
@aidenwinter1117 2 года назад
That explains why when I study I feel unmotivated, my momentum is imaginary...
@davidsweeney111
@davidsweeney111 2 года назад
So what is p? Is it momentum of a quantum particle or maybe probability of momentum?
@xjuhox
@xjuhox 2 года назад
There is a wave function for momentum also, and that function implies all the possible classical values of p.
@davidsweeney111
@davidsweeney111 2 года назад
@@xjuhox ah that’s interesting thanks!
@lulu137946825
@lulu137946825 2 года назад
Unless you explain why the p in the wave function exp(i/hbar(px-Et)) stands for the momentum, this explains nothing. You could substitute any other quantity for p (e.g. swap p and E) and claim that -i hbar del_x is the operator getting you that (e.g. the energy operator).
@eulersfollower7140
@eulersfollower7140 2 года назад
The wave equation I have seen is of the form e^i(kx-ωt) ,how does k become p and ω become E?
@gyorgyvanko1054
@gyorgyvanko1054 2 года назад
h bar. If it does not help, try a bar :)
@braianmederos6874
@braianmederos6874 2 года назад
Momentum can be written as p = h-bar k And energy E = h-bar (omega) Hope this helps!
@tanvirhasan137
@tanvirhasan137 2 года назад
👌👌❤️❤️❤️
@sivamadhavchinta8582
@sivamadhavchinta8582 2 года назад
Why is Ψ something like exponential function in the first place?
@schmetterling4477
@schmetterling4477 2 года назад
It isn't. It can be an arbitrary normalized complex L2 function. We get exponential functions for states with constant momentum.
@JakeFace0
@JakeFace0 7 месяцев назад
That's well and good for the plane wave; but why does the momentum EIGENSTATE for a quantum harmonic oscilator have a complex value?
@lepidoptera9337
@lepidoptera9337 3 месяца назад
Because the harmonic oscillator keeps exchanging momentum with its "support" potential. That is already so in classical mechanics. We are "fixing the spring" to an absolute coordinate system, so the motion does not conserve momentum and kinetic energy. It's one of those implicit high school/undergrad physics approximations that robs you of the chance to develop a solid intuition into the real behavior of systems early on. Instead you are being given a shortcut into a toy treatment of these problems that at the end of the day is false. The actual hydrogen solution, where the potential is between two quanta, a heavy nucleus and a light electron, also contains the plane wave continuum for the momentum of the center of mass motion. The Eigenspectrum of that is real. There is another effect, which in reality is far more important: the coupling to the electromagnetic field makes all but the ground state unstable, i.e. technically only the ground state energy is real. All other states have imaginary admixtures that come from the possible decays into all other allowed states (not just single photon but also multi-photon transitions AND virtual terms). This introduces natural line broadening that can be seen in atomic spectroscopy.
@bongohindu5496
@bongohindu5496 2 года назад
Bro, at 4:51 you could have done better by adding Euler's formula which says exponential of complex number gives a complex function of cosine and sine.
@everythingisphysics921
@everythingisphysics921 2 года назад
Some tricky questions please.......
@iyadindia862
@iyadindia862 2 года назад
hcut*K=P This expression is extremely useful in every modern physics topics be it condensed matter physics or Quantum mechanics as such. Anyway before going to quantum mechanics make sure you have complex analysis,linear algebra,basic calculus,waves etc packed inside your bag.
@mintakan003
@mintakan003 2 года назад
Yeah. I guess the next topic, is how momentum is related to wave length. The equation is simple. But how does this relate to the momentum operator?
@Robinson8491
@Robinson8491 2 года назад
Dirac ladder operator?
@sascha8460
@sascha8460 2 года назад
There is little mistake at the end, there is a time operator
@nzuckman
@nzuckman 2 года назад
If I identify dψ/dx with v, can -ihbar be identified with m?
@nisargbhavsar25
@nisargbhavsar25 2 года назад
Why would d(psi)/dx we called v?
@nzuckman
@nzuckman 2 года назад
@@nisargbhavsar25 KE ψ = p²/2m ψ = -hbar²/2m d²/dx² ψ = ½mv² ψ
@lepton_01
@lepton_01 2 года назад
I understood that Hermicity needed it to be imaginary, so the eigenvalues would be real.
@shumailmalik8207
@shumailmalik8207 2 года назад
This video is gonna save IITB Freshers 😜
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