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Yeah that is what I was thinking , I think he meant 260 , that is the opening balance of the assets, If not I am confused. Where is the 130 coming from
I hate the way ACCA have worded the question with regards to them both owning 50% each of Peru, but Brazil (according to the mark scheme) has “paid a share premium” effectively extra. - they need to specify its extra. How are they asking us to make an assumption that is extra??? The way I read it was: the combination of the 1 for 20 share exchange and $8 cash consideration made up the 50%. While Brazil paid the same amount in straight cash consideration. 😠
