Why the Church Teaches That Mary is a Virgin w/ Tim Staples 

Definitely Mother Mary was virgin. But whether or not she remained forever a virgin, im not bothered to know the answer, doesnt affect my faith in Jesus.

Love it. Beautiful. Friends, if the early church believed that she was a perpetual virgin, that has to be the standard, and dissidents have the burden of proof.

Very very interesting my brain exploded😂

Such a clear explanation! Really helped answer my question. Thank you

I’m sorry but this argument relies on so many premises, all of which have very questionable plausibility. I find it so implausible, just for one example, that countless Protestant Greek scholars just happen to miss that the Greek actually tells us that Jospeh merely “walked beside her” and that’s supposed to mean they didn’t have marital relations. The argument is just so disjointed and can only persuade the one who already believes in perpetual virginity. So much reading into the text here. “She’s married to the Holy Spirit.” Says who?! He’s just asserting this.

Thanks a lot for this. I’ve never heard the virginity of Mary explained so well with biblical references before.

Good stuff! In Christ, Andrew

This vídeo was so helpful. May God bless you 🙏🕊️💕

So instead of verse 25 saying, “he knew her not until she brought forth her firstborn” or should read, “and Joseph never knew her because she was married to God.”

Jesus said in Matt 5:17 “Think not that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets; I have come not to abolish them but to fulfil them.” Jesus is the Word and we must abide by every Word of God even though our human minds can’t understand that Mary is a perpetual virgin. It’s not about us. God bless you Tim Staples, what a beautiful explanation of the Holy Spirit leading Christs Church to all truth even about the ever Virgin Mary. Amen. I believe!

I agreed this time with James White on this matter of Blessed Mary's R.C.C. Dogmas that ANATHEMATIZE (Curse/Condemn) those who do not believe in it (reject it)... I concur with that... The "Perpetual Virginity" Dogma of Blessed Mary by the R.C.C. was a total denial of the ACTUAL NORMAL BIRTH of the Infant Christ Jesus in Bethlehem... "Blessed is the WOMB that bore THEE (Savior/Messiah)."... (ref. Luke 11:27-28)... The Bible never said, "Blessed is the WOMB that MIRACULOUSLY bore THEE (Savior)." Praise be to God in Christ Jesus...Amen.

PRICELESS !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Wow! What a great explanation. There should be no doubt after that unpacking. Great job guys.

Interesting, makes sense, never heard before 👍

I invite our Catholic friends to read the Holy Bible - Matthew 1:24-25

Matthew 1:24 When Joseph awoke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him; he took (Mary) as his wife, 25 but had no marital relations with her UNTIL she had borne a son; and he named him Jesus. (I love my Catholic brothers and sisters, but nothing you can say changes this. Sexual relations within the bonds of marriage is expected, holy and completely sanctified.)

Prophet Isaiah 7, 14 // Gospels: Mathew 1, 18, //Matthew 1, 23, //Matthew 1, 25// Luke 1, 27,//Luke 1, 34

I am the lmmaculate Conception. These are the words of Mary to Bernadette at Lourdes. Many astounding miracles are worked at Lourdes.

St. Paul warned the Corinthians... "Do not go beyond what is WRITTEN (in the Scripture/Bible)." ...(ref. 1 Corin. 4:6)... St. Paul also warned the Galatians... "If we (Apostles) or an Angel from Heaven teaches/preaches (Gospel/Prophesies) DIFFERENTLY, other than what we have Preached, Taught, and Received from us (Apostles), let the CURSE of God be upon them." (be ANATHEMA, be doomed to destruction, be condemned eternally in Hell. etc.)... (ref. Galatians 1:8)... Facts and Truth, Biblically and logically speaking... Praise be to God in Christ... Amen.

Understanding the Jewish law behind why Joseph and Mary could do the marital act blew my mind. So therefore, Mary completely belonged to God in a bigger way than just her vow stated. And she needed the protection therefore Jose needed to take her in. Mind blown

Wait, for this argument to follow, we have to look at Jesus' conception in some sense as a sexual act with the Holy Spirit do we not? Is that not the implication of the idea that Joseph saw Mary as being married to the Holy Spirit? Needless to say, I take great issue with that line of reasoning. If I'm misunderstanding, please correct me. Also, is the catholic position that Joseph had another wife by whom he had Jesus' brothers who are mentioned in the Gospels? And, why did James refer to himself as Jesus' half brother if he was not Mary's son? He would have been Joseph's son, but he would have no real relation to Jesus. I'm legitimately asking here, not just trying to poke holes.

This is so important! Everyone needs to watch this

Matthew 1:25

Always good to hear something wonderful about Mamma Mary. 🥰

Would be nice to hear more about data/sources/logic that support: 1. An elderly Joseph betrothed to a teenage Mary 2. A tradition that holds that Mary took a vow of virginity

I love the way that Tim Staples explains everything. I have been a fan of his since he visited the my church 25 years ago and gifted me with a personalized message and autographed copy of his book Nuts and Bolts...

This was very good. This video finally answered the MAJOR question surrounding Mary and Joseph that I hear from all shades of Christianity. Now we just got to figure out what happened to Joseph in the later years.

"For the Lord has done great things for me." What are those great things? Daughter of the Father. Mother of the Son. Spouse of the Holy Spirit. "The Spirit will overshadow you." In modern parlance, the Spirit will marry you. (See the conversation between Ruth and Boaz. "Place the wings of your cloak over me.")

But what about the verse that says joseph didnt know her until after?

If you guys ask me, as a former RC, I think Mary had to be a virgin just for God to show that Jesus is special unless if I am wrong.

(5:43) I see a problem here with this interpretation of Deut. 24:1-4 and that the law does not say that a betrothed person needs to divorce his wife. Deut. 24:1 is not speaking to a couple who is betrothed but a couple who has married and consummated the relationship. Joseph and Mary had not yet gotten to that point in their relationship. The law in Deut. refers to a legal dissolution of the marriage with a certificate of divorce. Which is why I believe that Matthew writes that Joseph put her away secretly. No written certificate of divorce required. This just does not apply in regard to Mary.

Read Richard Bennett’s book ‘Catholosism, East of Eden’. It gives all the answers perfectly.

For me it's simple. If Mary had other children, her attention would be diverted from serving Jesus. As perfect model of the Church, it is fitting that she would be wholly focused on Christ.

Brothers, Where in the Old or New Testament does it say Mary was uniquely married to the Holy Spirit?

Ave mary

❤️❤️❤️

Isn't James the brother of Jesus? And other brothers were mentioned (in Greek). Why would Mary and Joseph not have kids naturally afterward? I really don't understand where this argument comes from. If the church is married to Christ then no Christian would have sex. I really think this is reading far too much into the language but happy to be educated.

Please let me understand If bethrothal means technically married, then Blessed Mary is the Spouse of the Holy Spirit, how does that work? Does that mean Mary is Spouse to two? Or by the virtue of consummation of marriage through the bearing of child, the Holy Ghost is now the legitimate Spouse of Mary? I know its semantics but man I need answers

@mattfradd here is part of the problem..... Saint JPII's Catechism of the Catholic Church teaches heresy saying in CCC 497 that St Joseph is Mary's fiancee.

There is a thought 💭 toward the strength of 'tradition' that also makes sense: if Joseph was a 'observant Jew', and he knew Mary's pregnancy and birth of Jesus was a miracle, would he have been so bold then to have had conjugal relations with Mary and 'spoilt' the evidence of the miracle. Also, in Numbers 30:3-4 there is the Mosaic basis for the Protoevangelium claiming Mary was a consecrated virgin prior to her betrothal to Joseph.

The absolute mental and biblical gymnastics required to believe in the perpetual virginity of Mary astonishes me. Why would anyone accept such a radical doctrine with no scriptural support? Edit: Forgot to mention, the Holy Spirit is not the spouse of Mary. Joseph was. Were they a throuple? You can’t just make stuff up to justify insane theology.

Amazing! Really, really well explained! Thank you so much🙌

St. Joseph was the Redemptoris Custos -- The Guardian of our Redeemer. Thank God for you ministry, Matt. Sia lodato Gesu Cristo!

👏🏻👏🏻👏🏻👏🏻👏🏻👏🏻

If Mary is the spouse of the Holy Spirit, that means that the Holy Spirit committed adultery, since Mary was already married to Joseph, correct? Your argument seems to be getting worse rather than better. Plus I know it’s an old video, but do you have links to where you answer the question about sex being evil in catholic theology in marriage? God’s best on request for absolute truth.

The moment he (Mr. Staples) said these words I was greatly disturbed and like the men of old, I felt like tearing my clothes apart and falling facedown: “…the fact that Mary is consecrated to the Holy Spirit she becomes what of course the franciscans championed greatly after saint francis of Assisi the SPOUSE OF THE HOLY SPIRIT…” Now, he is saying that Mary is not only the mother of GOD but also the SPOUSE of GOD! WHAT????!!! I ask you now brothers and sisters, is this to you a sound doctrine? Did the Apostles believed and held the same view as Mr Staples’? Does this kind of thinking and reasoning still from GOD? In contrast, Jesus in His parables taught His disciples & apostles that He is the GROOM and the CHURCH is the bride - THIS is the real story, THIS is what we the bride of Jesus should believe in! Promoting this unbiblical doctrine desecrates the very essence of GOD - the Holiness of GOD. Let us all be like the Bereans. Meditate and examine HIS words - the scriptures, to see if what men are teaching, preaching, or promoting is true. To GOD alone be the highest glory, honor, and praise! 🙏

συνελθειν was the word used to show Joseph did not have sex till after the birth of Jesus . But the text is clear in verse 25 that once Jesus was born a normal marriage relationship was started

Matthew 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

There is a big problem with saying the king David did not take his wives back because they belong to another. Absalon was dead. Plus, they belong to David in the first place. It was because a son defiled as fathers wives. Not at all a parallel with Mary and Joseph God’s best on our quest for absolute truth.

What about Matt. 1:25 It says knew her not till shad had delivered Jesus? Why the word till?

The more important question is why would Mary's perpetual virginity be necessary?

im not torn on this issue, but so what if Mary wasnt a virgin to her legal husband. sex is not evil and child birth is not evil.

I am a Catholic and I believe that Mother Mary is ever virgin and holy, not only because she has the status as the Mother of God, but also because of her many apparitions under powerful graces of God, and I believe in her apparitions she usually testified as the virgin anyway. John 7 : 1-16, Mark 6 : 2-4, Matthew 13 : 54-57 The Gospel quotes above from Mark and Matthew are the ones depicting the 'brothers' of Jesus and His 'sisters', Jesus' neighbors underestimate Him and look down upon Him. If you only read the passages plainly you might be mistaken, just like the neighbors or townsfolk in the Synagogue, to think that Jesus is nothing special, like how can He have such authority and power? since we know He is only 'a son' of a carpenter and a simple mother, and we know His 'brothers' and 'sisters' as working class people around. How can Jesus be the Son of God if He has mortal parents and siblings? as it seems. Well, if Mary had other children beside Jesus, it will be a sin in Luke 1 : 43 where Elizabeth calls Mary 'mother of my Lord' and then Mary would become a mother of some other mortals, in which we would call Mary as Mother of God, Mother of James, Mother of Joseph, Mother of Simon, Mother of Judas, etc. Can we put God, although appeared as a man, as just one among other humans? Mary and Joseph would have dishonored, and hence sinned against, God by engaging in sexual relations when they knew the miraculous conception of Jesus and His divine nature by the will of God and yet they insisted in their own earthly desires and commitments. If Mary and Joseph are not holy, Mary would be a sinner and this would also be unfitting to the incarnation of God. So who are these 'brothers' and 'sisters' of Jesus? I think it is written as such to show extended families from either or both Mary and Joseph and hence they seemed to outsiders as 'brothers' and 'sisters' of Jesus as they focused on Jesus. And in John 7, Jesus' brothers in Galilee might as well be his friends He knew since childhood or fellow religious friends. The other thing about Joseph in Matthew 1 : 25, the Greek word is ἐγίνωσκεν (knew) regarding how Joseph did not commit to his (holy) family life with Mary after Jesus was born, which I take it as simply Joseph started calling Mary his wife and living a family life in chastity, because as explained how they must honor God from the graces and responsibilities they received. Without doubt, God's power and graces worked greatly in the holy family, for Christ.

The Catholic Church was commissioned by Christ to teach all nations and to teach them infallibly-guided, as he promised, by the Holy Spirit until the end of the world (see John 14:25, 16:13). The mere fact that the Church teaches that something definitely true is a guarantee that it is true (see Luke 10:16).

This didn't convince me. I wish the Jewish law, historical context, and translations of the Bible texts had been even more flushed out in this discussion. What was said here was too surface level, felt like it was missing a ton of context, and didn't address enough of both sides of the argument. Im not convinced either way about Mary's perpetual virginity btw.

So those parts where it mentions his brothers and sisters- y’know like Mark 6, Luke 8- you’re just going to ignore those parts… Not that it has any bearing on anything anyway though!

There does appear to me to be a disconnect between the idea that Mary was both a perpetual virgin and without sin. The Jews at the time of Christ believed that the first and greatest commandment was the first commandment that God gave humanity given in Genesis 1 when God commanded Adam and Eve to be “fruitful and multiply”. Obviously Mary “multiplied” but with a single “child” she would have been seen as a sinner. I do not say this because I believe that what the people believed about Mary was of any consequence but that Mary would have lived in obedience to God in every way. In regard to Joseph having children from a previous marriage, why is there no mention of these children when he took his family to Bethlehem for the census?

Most people don't have a clue what this particular word used for Mary which in Hebrew is alma, it's only used three times in the old testament referring to a young woman, however this word goes beyond the meaning of just a young woman but actually indicates her age, just as the word betulah in Hebrew is also referring to a virgin but also indicates age, both of these words are argued among scholars and can only come up with a young woman in their translation, a never ending argument that carries no proof, they could prove in their time if a young woman was a virgin or not, we can also do that in our time but no one wants to accept the truth, the two words that has everyone confused because they think they mean the same thing is the main problem with translating them, one is virgin and the other is virginity, I see no need to go into great detail trying to explain the difference but I can assure you this, one can be proven and the other can only be believed, a woman of any age can have virginity however a TRUE virgin which Mary was would have been impossible for her to get pregnant, I am saying this because of what I know a miracle to be and what many think is a miracle which is not, the true virgin (alma) which Mary was, would have been impossible to conceive a child and it wouldn't have mattered if she slept with a man or not, not having a understanding of the customs in ancient times, specifically the Jewish customs, is why all the arguing exist among gentiles and among the Jews as to what these two words mean, not willing to admit it because of the shame it brings to them, also people not having a understanding of WHY Jesus had to be born from a virgin and not just a young woman having virginity just don't understand the significance of His BLOOD, in this the whole world has been deceived, among other issues but this being a very important one, I know how old Mary was at the time God and the Holy Spirit came upon her but you will never figure it out from their scriptures by the way it was translated

Remember that Mary is the NEW ARK OF THE COVENANT as told to us in the Book of Revelation. What is true for the Ark in the Old Testament is true for the Ark in the New Testament--PURE.

First off, I grew up as an evangelical, so this is the first time hearing about this doctrine. The obvious rebuttal is what about her other children? But at a deeper level this sounds like an equivocation fallacy. How can God, who can commit no sin or tempt man to sin, do something to break his own law? Basically in order to get perpetual virginity, you are making the incarnation akin to the consumption of marriage, an act which for humans involves sex, but for God involved the agency of the Holy Spirit. But this would make God an adulterer because Mary was already betrothed to Joseph. Or are you saying that Mary was always bethrothed to God, in which case Joseph would be the adulterer if he slept with her? Sorry, this sounds like one of those doctrines thought up first, with scripture shoehorned on afterwards to make it fit.

The argument goes that Jesus had brothers. That word can be translated as cousins or very possibly and more probably Joseph had children from before. Mary was probably 13 or 14.

My problem with this is that he is making it sound as if the Holy Spirit had sex with Mary, which He certainly did not! She was a virgin. I always thought of it more like a spiritual insemination. Not sex. So nothing that would prevent Joseph from having normal marriage relations with her afterward.

Although neither Hebrew nor Aramaic had a word for "cousin", both customarily spoke of a cousin as a "son of an uncle" (Heb. ben dod; Aram. bar dad) and the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Old Testament, never translates either expression as "brother" or "sister". Brothers’ (adelphoi) never means ‘cousins’ in New Testament Greek” (1976, 1:181, emp. added). Indeed, the Greek language had a separate and distinct word for “cousins”-anepsioi (e.g., Colossians 4:10). When a nephew was meant, the relationship was clearly specified (e.g., Acts 23:16).

The part about Matt 1:20 “take” (paralambano) seems half thought out. Looking all all the references of that word online doesn’t suggest anything but that it means to take or grasp. And then he rewrites the text by ignoring the phrase “as” your wife. I mean grasping g at straws here.

Matthew 1:25 TPT [25] but they refrained from having sex until she gave birth to her son, whom they named "Jesus."

Bit confused then, what about Jesus’ siblings? Surely they weren’t also conceived of the spirit

Matthew 1:25?... narrates that "he (Joseph - husband of Blessed Mary) KNEW (had marital sex) her not until she brought forth a SON and he (Joseph) called/named Him Jesus." The English word "KNEW or KNOWN" in the context of the Holy Scripture (Word of God) is a modest way to say "had Marital Sex."... nothing is CLEARER than this Biblical passage... However, since God took her VIRGINITY with her consent at a younger age (perhaps not even of legal age of 18 years old in our time), I firmly believe that God Almighty had RESTORED (gave back) Blessed Mary's Virginity before she died even after having other Biological Children from her husband Joseph... Nothing is Impossible with God if God wills it... When God takes something, God also gives it back... When God closed the Door, God also opened another Door... When God allowed the 1st Temple to be destroyed, God also allowed the 2nd Temple to be restored... This "VIRGINITY RESTORATION" of Blessed Mary falls under the SPOKEN/ORAL TRADITION of the early CHURCHES in Asia Minor of the 1st Century A.D. and not under the written/epistle Tradition taught by the Apostles of Christ... This became the Roman Catholic Doctrine of "Perpetual Virginity of Blessed Mary," which I firmly believe is God's sole doing and not Blessed Mary's self-doing alone... Glory, Praise, and Thanks be to God in Christ Jesus... Amen and Amen...

Do we really understand the biological details of Mary's pregnancy? Was it Mary's ovum or did the Spirit miraculously deposit a viable zygote into Marys' womb? Can Jesus be considered the son of Mary through gestation and delivery as he is considered the son of Joseph through adoption? The perpetual virginity of Mary still seems an answer to a question no one is asking. I'll read and pray more concerning this. Thanks Matt for the video.

Y’all lost me with this argument. Why would God have Joseph go through with his marriage to Mary if He didn’t intend for Joseph to consummate the marriage? Nowhere did God tell Joseph he was not to consummate his marriage with Mary after Jesus was born. Wedlock is between 2 HUMANS, and the reason Mary was a virgin is because no MAN had been with her through Jesus’ conception

This is such a terribly weak argument… It’s no wonder that I have never heard it before. Mary was betrothed to Joseph. You’re suggesting that she was consecrated to God, and therefore could not be with her husband? It’s so absurd.

And to hear an alternative view: ru-vid.com/video/%D0%B2%D0%B8%D0%B4%D0%B5%D0%BE-DNeJkD6xWtw.html

No mention of this in the Pre-Nicene Fathers

I just don't believe she was a perpetual virgin. I also don't believe in her bodily assumption. Nor do I believe she is a co-redeemer or co-mediator for people. I LOVE Catholics!! I truly do! When I watch Catholic Mass on tv, I often tear up. But I just don't buy the Mary dogma.

Does this also mean that St. Joseph was a perpetual virgin?

How can somebody think that was a good explanation, then if she belong to the Holy Spirit ( which it cant be because they didn’t have sexual relationships or were married) why would the Angel tell Joseph that he can take his wife if Mary “belongs@ to the Holy Spirit, Matthew 1:24-25 speaks that Joseph didn’t consumare their marriage UNTIL she gave birth to Jesus, or why would the Bible refer to the brothers and sisters of Jesus if they were children of Joseph when He wasn’t his father ( that will be like calling the children of your Moms partner your siblings, you are literally unrelated)

David's wives weren't taken. His concubines were. You should know this.

Wait. The best argument for the PERPETUAL virginity of Mary is that "Joseph would have known" she was "consecrated to the Holy Spirit????????" I came here with an open mind trying to learn more about the RC position, but - with all due respect - this actually a worse argument than I was expecting. Can anyone here point to a better resource? (And I really appreciate and enjoy PWA!)

Not an issue for me, this one. Unlike the dogma of Mary's immaculate conception which I still don't get. Idea for a video?

A lot of assumptions here. Primarily, he assumes that God miraculously impregnating Mary is treated the same way as intimacy, in that it must happen in marriage. That causes a lot of problems. Since Mary was already exclusively claimed by Joseph, that means that the Holy Spirit committed adultery with a "legally married, betrothed" woman. And then Joseph formally married someone else's wife. Also, Matthew 1:20-25 is worded really weird if they were never "together". Why point out that "he 'knew' her not till she brought forth their firstborn son" if he "knew her not" afterword as well? Also, Matthew 13:55-56, Mark 3:32, Luke 8:20, and John 2:12 reference his siblings. All four gospels.

Ugh, his argument just went nowhere. He basically argues that Mary has to be a perpetual virgin because she is "married" to the Holy Spirit and Joseph is simply there for appearances sake, that he had no right to a husband's privilege of having sexual relations with his own wife. The protestant view is much more logical. It affirms the immaculate conception but then acknowledges that Mary and Joseph became a normal married couple after Jesus' birth. This thing about elevating Mary to such absurd heights makes me scratch my head every time

All About Mary! In our current sexually permissive age it is difficult to fully appreciate the scandal caused by the pregnancy of Mary when in the espousal stage of her marriage, with Joseph (Mt. 1:18; Lk. 1:27; 2:5). Mary explained how she came to be pregnant, but Joseph, like all the others, did not believe her. He could have had Mary stoned to death for adultery (Lev. 20:10; Dt. 22:22-24; Jn. 8:1-5), but, because of his love for her, Joseph decided to divorce Mary quietly to lessen her embarrassment and shame. It took an angel of God, by way of a dream to a sleeping Joseph, to convince him that Mary was not guilty of adultery (Mt. 1:18-25; Lk. 1:26-56). Therefore, Joseph did not have Mary stoned to death, or divorce her, or even observe the Jewish law of jealousies (Num. 5:11-31). However, Mary’s reputation would be tarnished for the rest of her life for being pregnant while in the espousal stage of her marriage to Joseph. The Pharisees saying they were not born of fornication is proof of this truth (Jn. 8:41). The prophecies of a son, born of a virgin (Isa. 7:14; 9:6; Mic. 5:2) had to be either ignored or discounted by the Jewish religious leaders and common citizens alike in regard to the pregnancy of Mary and the birth of the Lord Jesus, her first born son (Mt. 1:22-25). It should be noted that after the birth of the Lord Jesus, Mary made a sacrifice for her own sins, in the manner that all Jewish women were to do after they had a baby (Lk. 2:22-24, 39). The instructions of how Jewish women were to make an offering, for their own sins, after having a baby was given by God to Moses, who recorded them in Leviticus 12:1-8. The fact that this was to be an offering for sin or an atonement by the new mother is stated four different times in this passage. Thus, the belief and teaching that Mary was born sinless and never sinned throughout her life is biblically false! Another false belief and unbiblical teaching is that Mary remained a virgin throughout her lifetime. The biblical account reveals that Mary and Joseph sexually consummated their marital union after the birth of the Lord Jesus and together they had four additional sons with an unknown number of daughters (Mt. 12:46-47; 13:53-56; Mk. 3:31-32; 6:1-3; Lk. 8:19-20; Jn. 2:12; 7:5; Acts 1:14; 1 Cor. 9:4-5; Gal. 1:19). Nothing is recorded or is known about the sisters of the Lord Jesus Christ. The doctrines of election and free will are clearly taught in the holy Scriptures! These doctrines appear to be incompatible but actually complement each other as is clearly illustrated in the three stages of a Jewish marriage, which are 1. Engagement, 2. Espousal (Song 3:11; Jer. 2:2; 2 Sam. 3:14; 2 Cor. 11:2; Mt. 1:18; Lk. 1:47; 2:5) 3. Marriage Supper. The names of all human beings are placed in the Lamb’s Book of Life upon conception in their mother’s womb (Dan. 12:1; Phil. 4:3; Rev. 3:5; 21:27). Thus, every human being has been elected by God to be saved in heaven throughout eternity. This confirms that God is not willing that any should perish (2 Pet. 3:9). However, in our current Age of Grace, every man and woman, upon reaching their age of accountability MUST trust solely, by faith alone, in the finished work of the Lord Jesus Christ for their personal salvation to keep their name in the Lamb’s Book of Life (Jn. 3:15-18; 14:6; 20:30-31). Therefore, the CAUSE of salvation, upon reaching the age of accountability, is simply believing and the EFFECT of believing is to have a change of mind and ways [repentance] and identifying [baptism] with the Lord Jesus. An explanation of all the previous statements and much more may be found, read, and confirmed in the treatise entitled, A Biblical View of the Past, Present, & Future that is posted on www.endtimewarnings.org. Maranatha!

Who's mother was Jesus brothers? And if Mark was Jesus' cousin why he wasn't called Jesus brother?Joseph and Mary live together until Jesus got older. Did they live together and both are celebate? The virgin is literally meant for maiden.Joseph and Mary were engaged and surely be married later on.

Didn’t really follow the reasoning here with David’s concubines. Saying that Joseph having sexual relations with Mary violates OT consecration of marriage doesn’t make sense if you’re using multiple wives and concubines as a proof. Maybe that still shows some of the understanding of taking a woman after she has lain with another man but that still isn’t a true example of marriage to begin with. Seems more cultural than theological reasoning on that front

I love you guys. Your talks are amazing 😍 I love to listen from you 😍 May my lady ❤️ bless both of you. I'm what now because of our lady. The mother of Jesus+God)

8:40 that's it.

Mathew 12:47, Why is this so hard to believe? John 7:3. It's like you guys are blind. The Gospel of Mark (6:3) and the Gospel of Matthew (13:55-56) mention James, Joseph/Joses, Judas/Jude and Simon as brothers of Jesus, the son of Mary. The same verses also mention unnamed sisters of Jesus. So please find me another wife of Joseph I guess that will help

Joe Heschmeyer adds the fact that there wasn't any law precisely preventing the couple from intercourse during bethrodal. It happened, sure, but wasn't forbidden. So another question is, why they did not do it before? Tradition states that Mary took an oath of purity/chastity. It' worth mentioning.

I found this response unsatisfactory based on scriptural evidence. Moreover I found it inflammatory that it is being said that the holy spirit cannot do such and such a thing such as singing a census paper or defending her from a mob of mortal beings. That is utterly un-orthodox even for Catholic standards (classical catholic standards since pope Francis is not much of an orthodox himself). You are taking away attributes from the triune-God and giving sovereignty to a piece of paper. Back in the 1500s the catholic church would have burn you to the stake for such wrong interpretation of the attributes of a sovereign and might God.

Hmmm... I don't know about all that 🤨

Tim Staples tried to legitimize use of birth control on his Catholic Answers radio program yesterday.

I am an inquirer and have a legit question. What he is saying makes sense, yet what do you do with Jesus’ brothers? Were they then born of the Spirit too? And if they were, then wouldn’t that elevate them to the same existence as Christ our Lord? I get what the speaker here is saying as far as Joseph walking along side her, but what about after Christ is born? Would her taking relations with Joseph then make the relationship between Mary and the Holy Spirit more like David with the concubines? God is bound to take care of her but can no longer bring her into the marriage bed?

The church teaches Mary is a perpetual virgin because of tradition, not because the bible teaches it. Matthew is very clear, Joseph knew Mary after Christ was born. This is a commandment of men.

So the Holy Spirit snatched Mary from Joseph?

I'm saying that nowhere in the bible does it state that Mary was a perpetual virgin. Prove your point by pointing out the scripture that confirms this.

“I imagine her as a normal girl, a girl of today, open to getting married, to having a family”. Pope Francis

Tell me if I’m crazy, But I learned that both Joseph and Mary had taken an oath to lifelong celibacy even in their marriage. So they had never planned to have sex. Right/wrong??? There are even people in these modern times who take this oath.

There are a number of problems I have with the perpetual virginity concept. 1.) Jesus had siblings. Matthew 13:55-56 "'Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not His mother called Mary, and His brothers, James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And His sisters, are they not all with us?'" (story also in Mark 6:3). Luke 8:19-21 "And His mother and brothers came to Him, and they were unable to get to Him because of the crowd. And it was reported to Him, 'Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside, wishing to see You.' But He answered and said to them, 'My mother and My brothers are these who hear the word of God and do it.'" (story also Mark 3:31-35, and Matthew 12:46-50). John 2:12 "After this He went down to Capernaum, He and His mother, and His brothers, and His disciples; and there they stayed a few days." Unless Jesus 4 brothers and unnumbered amount of sisters were all conceived of the Holy Spirit, Mary had sex after Jesus was born. But if these 6+ other children were also conceived in this way, why doesn't the scripture or anywhere in early church tradition talk about their esteem like Jesus? But rather, we see them flawed (unlike Jesus), in John 7:5 it describes their lack of faith: "For not even His brothers were believing in Him." (which kind of echoes Joseph in Genesis 37). (Total references of Jesus' brothers in the Gospels: 7.) 2.) Joseph's decree was to not have sexual relations with Mary UNTIL after Jesus was born. Matthew 1:24-25 "And Joseph arose from his sleep, and did as the angel of the Lord commanded him, and took her as his wife, and kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus." The point of Mary being a virgin when Jesus was brown as to fulfill the Isaiah prophecy: "Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel." Although Jesus was miraculously conceived, if Joseph and Mary went ahead and had sex before she gave birth, then this prophecy wouldn't have been fulfilled. After Jesus was born, the two married couple were now permitted to have sex. 3.) Paul argues against celibacy within marriage. 1 Corinthians 7:5 "Stop depriving one another, except by agreement for a time that you may devote yourselves to prayer, and then come together again lest Satan tempt you because of your lack of self-control." The passage in Jeremiah 3:1-2 and Deuteronomy 24:1-4 were taken WAY out of context in this video. Neither of these passages describes a woman who went astray from her husband, they BOTH describe a husband who SENDS his wife away (divorces her), and she ends up married to another man. Because the man has divorced his wife, he is not allowed to take her back after she has become another man's wife. He gave up his right to her. The story of David in 2 Samuel 20:3 shows his character, but you see him do the opposite in 2 Samuel 3:12-16, where David is in the process of taking the throne of Israel, and he makes a covenant with Abner on the condition that Abner bring him Michal, Saul's daughter, who was his wife until he had to flee from Saul. Saul then gave Michal to Paltiel instead. But now that David was no longer fleeing from Saul, he wanted his wife back, despite she was now married to Paltiel. Similarly, Hosea 3 describes a prophet being commanded by God to pursue his wife who had been unfaithful to him. "Then I said to her, 'You shall stay with me for many days. You shall not play the harlot, nor shall you have a man; so I will also be toward you.' For the sons of Israel will remain for many days without king or prince, without sacrifice or sacred pillar, and without ephod or household idols. Afterward the sons of Israel will return and seek the LORD their God and David their king; and they will come trembling to the LORD and to His goodness in the last days" (Hosea 3:3-8). The entire book of Hosea is about comparing God's relationship with His people to the relationship between a husband and wife. In this parallel, worship is seen as the parallel to sexual union. When we go astray and worship other things, we are paralleling sexual union to other partners (adultery). This is why God is so against idolatry. When we go astray from God, He pursues us as Hosea did, but even after He restores us, there may often be a time of our souls being unready to embrace the intimacy of worship with such a holy God. But that doesn't mean God never wants us to worship again. Hosea gave Gomer a time of purification before he had sex with her again. In a similar way, God gave Israel a time of purification in Babylon before He returned them to Jerusalem where they could rebuild their temple, but the goal always was to bring Israel back into a faithful relationship with God which included worship. God shows His love in this: even when we are unclean to come and enjoy the intimacy of our relationship with God in worship as a husband and wife enjoy the intimacy of their relationship in sex, God comes along side us in a season of celibacy until the union is able to be rebuilt and the intimacy is able to be enjoyed again. The legality Tim Staples gave for a husband never returning to a sexual union with an adulterous wife is not Biblical. To build on top of this that Joseph couldn't have sex with Mary because she belonged to the Holy Spirit is also flawed, -a bad foundation causes an entire house to collapse.

So many scriptural gymnastics for something that wasn’t a tradition until hundreds of years after Jesus’ ascension. The apostles and early church fathers did not teach Mary was a perpetual virgin and rejected the Protoevangelium of James as a heretical text. It wasn’t until the council in Ephesus that established the dogma of the perpetual virginity. TLDR: no eyewitness testimony, protoevangelium of James was considered non-canon by early church fathers, no early church father taught perpetual virginity until AFTER 3rd century. Dogma.

Sounds like a stretch to me

So all those arguments sound fine but I am really perplexed at the framing "Mary is married to the Holy Spirit." Is this language even licit and cohere with how the Church Fathers and Saints would frame it and The Church? I am having trouble with this framing. I think there needs to be more nuance unpacked in how marriage is conceived in ancient Israel and how The Catholic Church conceives it in light if Mary's Virginal Perpetuity.