6. The Pope is in the New Testament 

More to come!

Thank you!

Thank you very much!

Thank you @VFXShawn for commenting. It's through dialog that we can reach the Truth. I appreciate your objections and hope you continue to watch and discuss. I'll try to address the petra/petros objection in another video. The short answer is that Jesus spoke in Aramaic and used the word Kephas. Also the adoption of the word Pappas definitely came later as I stated in the video but there are more episodes to come! Once again I appreciate your views!

@@JohnFalstaffMedia I appreciate you taking the time to acknowledge and deal with objections and writing a polite comment. Thank you.

@@VFXShawnVenomfang! Listen man I used to watch you all the time back in ‘07-‘08. Hope you are doing well and God has blessed you over these many years. Old youtube was a different beast then. You had ZKeuker88, Jezuzfreek777, OneTrueChurch, TheAmazingAtheist, TonyfromtheBronx, Thunderf00t, etc. Pretty crazy to see how things have come huh?

Jesus didn’t speak Greek. He spoke Aramaic. Kepha is what he would have named Peter. Besides you should look up the role of the King’s “Al Habayit”. First mention of one is Ahishar for Solomon 1 Kings4:6.

Thank you for commenting @TheCoachsCoach933. I hope you stay tuned to my new videos. Your comments are welcome.

Thank you kindly

Much appreciated!!!!! 😃

Thank you for contributing @toferg.8264. Your opinion is valued here. Please continue to follow and comment.

Well Clement was an important early Christian leader. He's regarded as the most important 2nd generation Christian by basically everyone serious, protestant or otherwise. He was also Bishop of Rome. I kind of have a feeling Paul knew the guy.

Thank you @jep6752! I appreciate the feedback!

Welcome aboard!

I love scripture. Stay tuned for Episode 7

You are right in stating that Scripture doesn't say the bishop of Rome should have primacy over other bishops but consider this: if Peter didn't have central authority over the other apostles, then why would Jesus SPECIFICALLY reference him(Peter) in Luke 22:31-32 and also John 21:15-17. kindly let me know why Jesus would speak directly to Peter in the aforementioned passages if he(Peter) had no primacy over the rest of the apostles. also why would Peter, apart from James, be the only apostle to make a prominent speech in Acts 15.

Only one officer of the King carried the keys of the kingdom. 1Kings 4:6, Isaiah 22, Matt 16. You need to understand the hierarchy of the Davidic Kingdom to understand Christ the King and his church. Search term “Al Habayit”. Jesus Christ sits on the throne of David forever. Peter was the only apostle that Christ the king gave his keys to shoulder. Current “Al Habayit” for Christ is Francis.

There’s much that could be said about your use of Scripture, but why do you read yourself into it so much? Jesus and Peter go to the temple and the disciples come to them at that very moment arguing about who’s going to be the greatest, and you read the answer He tells them, along with what Paul wrote to his son in the faith Titus in a personal letter (one of the Pastoral Epistles), and you read yourself into that?

@@nyantakyibannor9328 In Luke 22:31-32 and John 21:15-17, Jesus speaks directly to Peter, which Catholics interpret as establishing Peter’s leadership and the foundation of papal authority. However, the Eastern Orthodox and Protestant traditions see Peter’s role differently. They argue that while Peter had a unique and important position, it wasn’t one of supreme authority over the other apostles. Instead, leadership was shared among the apostles, and Peter’s role was more pastoral than hierarchical. The Orthodox view especially emphasizes a collegial leadership model rather than a centralized authority.

Pope is just a traditional title, not an official one, if you know what i mean. It just means "Father"

I thought Peter was the first Pope? Actually, Pope means holy father. Not just father. The Catholic priest are called father and the pope holy father. None of it is biblical.

Paul was the first Pope. But saying it’s not biblical is like saying the Ford Model T wasn’t a car because the word car wasn’t in use yet. With that type of logic, the word biblical itself isn’t biblical, because the Bible hadn’t been written at that point. Sola Scriptura is not biblical, nowhere does the Bible mention sola Scriptura. Faith alone is not biblical. The only place in the Bible you find the phrase “Faith alone”, the word before it is ‘not’… “not by faith alone”. Where in the Bible is the word, Trinity? That’s just a few examples of why that argument is so poorly thought out..

​@@mr.e8432 is faith alone biblical

@@brendanmuller7301 Nope.

Thanks for commenting. Pope = Bishop of Rome

@@JohnFalstaffMedia There’s also popes of Antioch, Alexandria, etc. tho, right? Even to this day there is a pope of Alexandria. I agree with you about that, but I don’t understand why you insist so strongly that only the bishop of Rome is called the pope. It’s confusing.

Thanks for commenting @littlefishbigmountain! You are right to say there were πάππας in all these churches. Even today we call the leader of Coptic Orthodox Church a Pope and the Patriarchs of many Orthodox churches can use the same designation. I don't want to be ethnocentric so point conceded. However, I think the question at hand is the difference between "a pope" and "the Pope". Hopefully future episodes will clarify the recognized role of the Bishop of Rome among all the churches in early Christianity. Please stay tuned and thank you for sharing your thoughts.

Not to mention that clement, was pope from 92 ad to 100 ad. Philipians was written sometime between 55 ad and most likely 62 ad., which means this may not even be the same clement.

Thanks again @williamschlosser77 for sharing your thoughts. You may have just solved almost 2000 years of controversy with these two comments.

@williamschlosser77 William, The Bible is not a historical book. It is mainly a book of Faith. However, it does reveal the presence of Clement in Scripture. The English word Pope does not exist in Greek, where the word "Patéras" or Páppas mean Father. An affectionate title for an Elder of the Church. It was later restricted to refer to the successor of Peter, as Bishop of Rome. Clement became 4th Pope after the death of Pope Cletus. Read his letters to the Corinthians.

Thank you @frederickanderson1860. I appreciate your comment! You are correct. The word Pope does not appear in the Bible. The early Christians began calling their leaders Pappas. Why do you think they did that?

@@JohnFalstaffMedia simple the high priest's were appointed by king Herod and they did not know that jesus was the promised Messiah, a threat to their authority. Jesus prewarned his disciples about the destruction of their beloved temple. Hence the priesthood was also obsolete and sacrifices abolished , therefore his warnings about calling these corrupt priests father or teacher. The age of the old covenant was about to end ,

Thank you @frederickanderson1860. Brilliant response.

Thank you for commenting. I appreciate all views. I’m not quite sure what is meant by your comment. In simple words, Peter, Linus, and Clement are mentioned in the New Testament. The Bishop of Rome came to be known as the Pope. Thank you for initiating a dialogue. I hope we can reach some common ground!

@@JohnFalstaffMedia where does it say in scripture that the bishop became the pope? I thought the pope was supposed to be celibate and given to the office…. Peter was a married man….. that’s deception. The deceiver is satan.

Thank you again @allenmcrae433 for engaging in dialogue. As far as I know, the Bible doesn’t use the word Pope anywhere. From the early 2nd century, bishops (everywhere) were commonly called πάππας or pappas or father and this is where the word Pope comes from. Gradually the term came to refer exclusively to the bishop of Rome. Celibacy for clergy, though it has its origins in the early Church, was not required until the 11th century. In the Eastern Orthodox Church, celibacy was only required of bishops after the 4th century.

@@JohnFalstaffMedia Jesus said to call no man on earth father. Though the people did. He said not too.

@@JohnFalstaffMedia so that’s proof they added in the 4th century. Jesus said to believe on him how the scriptures say.

Thank you @tony1685 for initiating a conversation. It is through dialog that we can reach the Truth. Feel free to share more of your knowledge.

@@JohnFalstaffMedia thank you for being so welcoming also, i agree and feel that Truth always invites investigation. with that, it's clear in Scripture that catholicism mandates sin. we can't agree to this unless you agree that God's Word = Truth, which is proven in John 17:17 i look forward to your replies, Sir! again, thanks for being so kind. after all, we are all trying go get to the same place with as many as possible with us.

How does Catholicism teach sin/ on the contrary; look at the hoops you jump to say baptism is not necessary, or that the Eucharist is just a symbol. You guys are plain and simply hilarious, the game was set the rule book is there, 15th century let’s get rid of history and start sola scriptura and sola fide. Put sola scriptura to the test, how many different Protestant churches are there? You guys clearly teach a different gospel, than what Jesus left, prove me wrong.

@@JuanGonzalez-kb3gm well, if sin = transgression (breaking) of His Commandments -- as 1 John 3:4 defines for us... and Exodus 20:8-11 is speaking of the Lords day being the 7th day Sabbath... and this 'church' pretends the 1st day is such.... it's promoting and mandating sin.

@@tony1685 Colossians 2:16 16 Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. We all agree with 1 John 3:4 no defining what transgression is that would make me or you guilty. Matthew 16:19 loose and bind. According to the Jewish Encyclopedia, the phrase "binding and loosing" is a technical term that means to "forbid and permit". The Torah gave the power to "bind" and "loose" to the Sanhedrin, judges, and priesthood of Israel. St. Justin Martyr, First Apology (c. A.D. 160), "And on the day called Sunday, all who live in cities or in the country gather together to one place, and the memoirs of the apostles or the writings of the prophets are read, as long as time permits; then, when the reader has ceased, the president verbally instructs, and exhorts to the imitation of these good things. 1 Cor. 16:2, •"On the first day of every week, each of you is to put something aside and store it up, as he may prosper, so that contributions need not be made when I come." Acts 20:7, •"On the first day of the week, when we were gathered together to break bread, Paul talked with them, intending to depart on the morrow; and he prolonged his speech until midnight." St. Justin Martyr, Dialogue with Trypho 10 (c. A.D. 150), •"Is there any other matter, my friends, in which we are blamed, than this, that we live not after the law, and are not circumcised in the flesh as your forefathers were, and do not observe sabbaths as you do? Are our lives and customs also slandered among you? And I ask this: have you also believed concerning us, that we eat men; and that after the feast, having extinguished the lights, we engage in promiscuous concubinage?" We agree on the 10 commandments, if anything that’s what I like about SDA, if you are one. Now based on tradition we go for Sunday, if you are SDA your tradition started in 19th century?