I agree with you....it seems like so many want to change the Bible to fit what they want. In my opinion God is very clear...there are no gray areas. Thank you Dane for your clear teaching.
If you redefine the foundation that you preach from for inclusiveness, the more people will agree. And the foundation becomes something else than the original. When you rewrite history on top of redefining the original foundation, all is lost in translation. We are almost there. You are a good educator and preacher in my opinion. You tell the truth in an interesting way that glorifies God and not yourself. Not enough of that these days.
He has been refuted consistently but still, sadly holds to his false view of Christ, a Christ that cannot save, one I fear will say to him… depart, I never knew you.
If you are willing to pick and choose verses to create a message you want to convey and then ignore verses that don't support your conclusion, you can make the bible say anything you want it to. I agree with your conclusion in this video. Quite an interesting topic considering the times we are living in...
How could the "Genesis description" ... "of a man leaving his father and mother and being joined to his wife and becoming one flesh is a description of what happened in the life of Adam and Eve but is not necessarily a command..." be used since Adam had no father or mother to leave!?
Hey Julie, I'm not sure if I understand your question correctly or not, but I'll do my best. When God said, "therefore a man shall leave his father and mother..." (Gen 2:24), He wasn't describing what Adam & Eve did. As you pointed out, they had no parents. Rather, what God was doing what setting a precedent for marriage. When Jesus quoted this passage in Matt 19:5, He said, "For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother ..." In other words, in response to what Adam and Eve did, God declared that this was the way it was to be from that point on. Dane
He is still active, Dr Tallon has never responded to my comments. See below; Johnathan ‘Jesus is not defining marriage here’ Alright lets exegete the text. Matthew c19 v3- 3 Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?” Johnathan, what did the Pharisees understand marriage to be? Where did they get that understanding from? Ans the monogamous heterosexual union between one man and one women from Gen c2v18-25. 4 “Haven’t you read,” he replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’[a] Johnathan, it is absolutely true what you say that Jesus is responding to the Pharisees on a question related to divorce and he grounds his answer by quoting directly from the Old Testament as his authority. Jesus acknowledges Gods creative decree and the design of the marriage and the family as one man and one woman - this is what God has made. 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’[b]? For ‘what reason’ Johnathan? Ans - Gen c2v20b ‘but for Adam[f] no suitable helper was found’- no Ezer Konegdo no one ‘as in front of him opposite to him, corresponding to him’ This is vitally important to understand, Jesus acknowledges again, as authoritative Gods creative decree that Men and Women are different to one and other and correspond to one and other in the union that God has designed. Who does the Man leave Johnathan to join to his wife?…. Ans - The man leaves his Father and Mother, the family, as God has designed it. 23 The man said, “This is now bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called ‘woman,’ for she was taken out of man.”) Back to Matthew 6 So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” One flesh Johnathan? No other union has the complementary sexual organs to become one flesh other than one man and one women together. This goes back to Gods design of Man for Women and Women for man as in front of him opposite to him, corresponding to him & vice versa. Johnathan What has ‘God joined together’ that ‘no one should separate’ Ans (as above the monogamous heterosexual union between one man and one women from Gen c2v18-25). 7 “Why then,” they asked, “did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?” Again Johnathan how did the Pharisees understand marriage? And again where did they get that understanding from? Ans (as above) the monogamous heterosexual union between one man and one women from Gen c2v18-25. 8 Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. 9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” Johnathan, who did Jesus say the the Men where permitted to divorce under Moses direction… is it women by any chance? So I come back to my question from months and months ago.. How did Jesus understand marriage? What is Jesus definition of marriage? What was ‘the way from the beginning’? Ans - (as above) the monogamous heterosexual union between one man and one women from Gen c2v18-25. 10 The disciples said to him, “If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry.” Johnathan, what did the Disciples understand marriage to be? And where did they get this understanding Ans (as above the monogamous heterosexual union between one man and one women from Gen c2v18-25.) Johnathan, the disciples of Jesus understood marriage to be between one man and one women; the Pharisees understood marriage to be between one man and one women; Jesus understood marriage to be between one man and one women. Not only from Gods word but also from what is evident from the created order - Men and Women compliment each other so beautifully like no other union can or will, ever. To deny that Jesus understood Marriage to be anything other than the monogamous heterosexual union between one man and one women from Gen c2v18-25 is to suppress the authority and clarity of the word of God. It is to impose upon it your own or another’s view which is wrong. Furthermore to continue in teaching what you’re teaching at Colleges and to Churches etc is frightening and I fear and pray for you to repent.
You are misunderstanding for several reasons. 1. Adam and Eve are not married. The word wife should not be translated wife to begin with in Genesis 2:24. There is no context for translating it as wife apart from woman. It is also, a therefore. This is why people come together. 2. Genesis does not provide a full description of creation. God created day and night, but we know that dawn and dusk exist. 3. If we follow your logic we would all have to be vegan. 5. Jesus is not providing a theology of marriage. He is protecting women from being discarded for any reason. He even states this does not apply to everyone and mentions a sexual minority of Eunuchs. 6. Clearly Jews did not take Genesis 2:24 as prescriptive because many of them practiced polygamy to include King David and Solomon. God tells David that if he didn't have enough wives, he would of given him more which destroys a notion of God's design for marriage.
